Nursing Process Test Questions

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is starting the assessment by examining a specific aspect (surgical dressing with drainage) and will likely proceed to gather more detailed information based on the initial findings. This approach involves moving from a broad overview to specific details, which is essential in assessing postoperative patients for complications. A: Gordon�s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive assessment framework that covers various aspects of an individual's health, not specifically focusing on the progression from general to specific assessments in this situation. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity levels and exercise routines, which is not the primary focus of the scenario described. D: Problem-oriented assessment is a method that involves identifying and addressing specific health issues or concerns, which is not the primary aim of the assessment approach used by the nurse in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

Why are older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases susceptible to thrombophlebitis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IV drugs and chemicals. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein with blood clot formation, commonly caused by irritants like IV drugs. Impaired mobility (C) and compromised circulation (D) are risk factors for thrombophlebitis, but not specific to older adults with heart and blood vessel diseases. A is incorrect as not all choices apply in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.

Question 5 of 5

Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (Lamb and peaches) because lamb is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Peaches are high in vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. Shrimp and tomatoes (A) have some iron but are not as rich in iron as lamb. Cheese and bananas (B) are not significant sources of iron. Lobster and squash (C) also do not provide as much iron as lamb. Overall, the combination of heme iron from lamb and vitamin C from peaches makes them the most suitable choices for an anemic client requiring iron therapy.

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