Nursing Process Test Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a side effect, which can be minimized with good oral hygiene practices. Procainamide, Azathioprine, and Allopurinol are not associated with gingival hyperplasia. Therefore, the client receiving cyclosporine should focus on practicing good oral hygiene specifically when taking Phenytoin to minimize the risk of developing gingival hyperplasia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Placing the patient on the side with support to the back, pillows for body alignment, and a washcloth to slightly curl the fingers helps prevent contractures, aids in maintaining proper alignment, and provides support for the affected side. This position also promotes optimal blood flow and prevents pressure sores. Choice A is incorrect because tightly holding a rolled washcloth can restrict blood flow and cause discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as lying on the back with pillows under the head and knees does not address the specific needs of right-sided paralysis. Choice D is incorrect as trochanter rolls may not provide adequate support for the paralyzed side, and no pillows can lead to pressure sores and discomfort.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dependent. In this scenario, the nurse is administering pain medication based on a healthcare provider's prescription, which demonstrates a dependent nursing intervention. The nurse is reliant on the provider's order to carry out this action. Collaborative interventions involve working with other healthcare professionals, independent interventions are actions that nurses can initiate without supervision, and interdependent interventions involve mutual goal-setting and decision-making among healthcare team members.

Correct Answer: E

Rationale: The correct answer is not provided in the choices. However, if I were to choose from the given options, the most appropriate would be C: "Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency." This is important because older adults may have decreased kidney function, leading to potential complications with IV therapy. Option A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are not directly related to monitoring IV therapy. Option B is incorrect as fluid overload is a general concern with IV therapy regardless of age. Option D is irrelevant to the need for monitoring IV therapy in older adults.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.