Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A hemolytic reaction to mismatched blood. Chills, dyspnea, and urticaria are indicative of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, which occurs when the recipient's immune system attacks the donor's red blood cells. This can lead to various symptoms, including fever, chills, difficulty breathing, and hives. This type of reaction is most commonly seen with mismatched blood types. Option B (A hemolytic reaction to Rh-incompatible blood) is incorrect because Rh incompatibility typically leads to hemolytic disease of the newborn, not an immediate transfusion reaction. Option C (A hemolytic allergic reaction caused by bacterial contamination of donor blood) is incorrect as bacterial contamination would present with symptoms such as fever and sepsis, not chills, dyspnea, and urticaria. Option D (None of the above) is incorrect as the symptoms presented align with a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately defines a transient ischemic attack (TIA) as a temporary interruption in blood flow to the brain. This response demonstrates the nurse's knowledge and ability to provide accurate information to the family member. Option A is incorrect because it deflects the question to the doctor without providing any information. Option B is incorrect because it inaccurately states that TIA causes permanent brain damage, which is not true. Option D is also incorrect because it simply restates the abbreviation without providing any explanation of what TIA actually means.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid intake of less than 2,500mL. In diabetes insipidus, the body cannot properly regulate fluid balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. Successful treatment aims to manage these symptoms by reducing fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Therefore, a decrease in fluid intake indicates successful treatment. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Blood pressure of 90/50mmHg - Blood pressure is not directly related to the treatment of diabetes insipidus. C: Pulse rate of 126 beats/min - Pulse rate is not a specific indicator of successful treatment for diabetes insipidus. D: Urine output of more than 200mL/hour - In diabetes insipidus, excessive urine output is a symptom of the condition, so an increase in urine output does not indicate successful treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignant. A malignant tumor spreading to surrounding tissues indicates invasive growth, characteristic of malignancy. It is aggressive and can invade nearby structures. Non-malignant tumors are localized and do not invade surrounding tissues. Benign tumors are non-invasive and do not spread to other parts of the body. Choice D is incorrect because a tumor spreading to surrounding tissues is indicative of malignancy, not benignity.