ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson�s disease is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.
Question 2 of 5
For a client with low blood volume, what are the implications of decreasing blood pressure and a rapid heart rate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypovolemia and shock. Rationale: 1. Low blood volume leads to decreased blood pressure and rapid heart rate as compensatory mechanisms. 2. These signs indicate inadequate perfusion due to reduced blood volume. 3. Hypovolemia can progress to shock if not addressed promptly. Summary: A: Compression of blood vessels is not directly related to low blood volume. B: Increasing circulating blood volume would not occur in a client with low blood volume. C: Inadequate renal perfusion is a consequence of hypovolemia, not an implication of decreasing blood pressure and rapid heart rate.
Question 3 of 5
Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes with:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because antimetabolites interfere with the synthesis of nucleic acids (RNA and/or DNA), affecting multiple stages of RNA and DNA synthesis. This disruption hinders cell division and leads to cell death. Choices A and B are incorrect because antimetabolites do not specifically target cell division during the M phase or normal cellular processes during the S phase. Choice C is also incorrect because antimetabolites primarily target nucleic acid synthesis rather than altering the chemical structure of DNA or the binding between DNA molecules.
Question 4 of 5
A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient�s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should primarily communicate with the patient, not just the daughter. This ensures patient-centered care and respects the patient's autonomy. Speaking only to the daughter may undermine the patient's dignity and may lead to incomplete information gathering. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are appropriate nursing communication techniques that facilitate rapport-building and active listening with the patient. Making eye contact, leaning forward, and nodding are all positive non-verbal cues that show engagement and attentiveness to the patient, promoting effective communication and building trust.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid intake of less than 2,500mL. In diabetes insipidus, the body cannot properly regulate fluid balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. Successful treatment aims to manage these symptoms by reducing fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Therefore, a decrease in fluid intake indicates successful treatment. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Blood pressure of 90/50mmHg - Blood pressure is not directly related to the treatment of diabetes insipidus. C: Pulse rate of 126 beats/min - Pulse rate is not a specific indicator of successful treatment for diabetes insipidus. D: Urine output of more than 200mL/hour - In diabetes insipidus, excessive urine output is a symptom of the condition, so an increase in urine output does not indicate successful treatment.
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