microbiology chapter 10 test bank

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

microbiology chapter 10 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

The main target of toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae are:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the main target of the toxin produced by Vibrio cholerae is the epithelial cells of the small intestine. This toxin, known as cholera toxin, binds to the surface of these cells and disrupts their normal function, leading to the characteristic watery diarrhea seen in cholera. The other choices are incorrect because macrophages are not the main target, RBCs are not directly affected by the toxin, and the stomach epithelial cells are not specifically targeted by Vibrio cholerae toxin.

Question 2 of 5

A 35-year-old man was diagnosed with cutaneous leishmaniasis. What is the vector of the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sandfly. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of infected sandflies. These tiny insects are known vectors for Leishmania parasites. Sandflies are active during dusk and night, feeding on blood from mammals, including humans. Tick (B), mosquito (C), and tsetse fly (D) are not vectors for Leishmania parasites. Ticks transmit diseases like Lyme disease, mosquitoes transmit diseases like malaria, and tsetse flies transmit African trypanosomiasis. Therefore, the correct vector for cutaneous leishmaniasis is the sandfly due to its specific role in transmitting the Leishmania parasite.

Question 3 of 5

During the incubation period S. Typhi multiplies in the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because during the incubation period of Salmonella Typhi infection, the bacteria multiply in the macrophages of the Peyer's patches and solitary follicles. This is supported by the fact that S. Typhi is an intracellular pathogen that targets the lymphoid tissues of the intestines. Macrophages in these areas serve as the primary host cells for the bacteria, allowing for their replication and evasion of the host immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because S. Typhi does not primarily multiply in the small intestine enterocytes, the lumen of the small intestine, or hepatocytes during the initial stages of infection.

Question 4 of 5

All of the following infections may recur during pregnancy except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: polyomavirus infections. Polyomavirus infections do not typically recur during pregnancy because once the virus infects the body, it remains latent without causing recurrent infections. In contrast, choices A, B, and C can recur during pregnancy due to their ability to reactivate from latency or reinfect the host. Epstein-Barr virus infections (choice A) can lead to infectious mononucleosis, herpes simplex virus infections (choice B) can cause recurrent genital or oral herpes outbreaks, and streptococcal infections (choice C) can result in recurrent throat or skin infections.

Question 5 of 5

Primary immunodeficiency diseases are all of the listed, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin, as it is not a primary immunodeficiency disease. Primary immunodeficiency diseases are genetic disorders that affect the immune system's ability to fight infections. A: Glanzmann-Riniker hypergammaglobulinemia is a rare primary immunodeficiency characterized by elevated levels of gammaglobulins. C: Variable hypogammaglobulinemia is a primary immunodeficiency disease where there are fluctuating levels of gammaglobulins. D: Bruton hypogammaglobulinemia, also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia, is a primary immunodeficiency characterized by a lack of B cells and gammaglobulins. In summary, B is the correct answer as gamma globulin is not a primary immunodeficiency disease, whereas A, C, and D are all examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases affecting gammaglobulins levels.

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