ATI RN
Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
The desired outcome for a patient experiencing insomnia is, "Patient will sleep for a minimum of 5 hours nightly within 7 days." At the end of 7 days, review of sleep data shows the patient sleeps an average of 4 hours nightly and takes a 2-hour afternoon nap. The nurse will document the outcome as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sometimes demonstrated. The rationale is that the patient is not consistently meeting the desired outcome of sleeping for a minimum of 5 hours nightly within 7 days. Although the patient is sleeping for an average of 4 hours nightly, the 2-hour afternoon nap indicates that the patient is not achieving the desired outcome consistently. Therefore, the nurse would document the outcome as "Sometimes demonstrated" to reflect that the patient is making progress towards the goal but has not fully achieved it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the patient's sleep behavior does not align with being consistently, often, or never demonstrated based on the desired outcome criteria.
Question 2 of 5
During a grief-processing group, an elderly patient stated, �For the first time since my husband died, I�m having more good days than bad.� This statement suggests that the patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Completed her "grief work" successfully. This statement indicates progress in the grieving process, moving towards acceptance and healing. The patient acknowledging having more good days than bad reflects a positive shift in coping with the loss, indicating that she has processed her grief and is beginning to adapt to life without her husband. This suggests that the patient has worked through her emotions, memories, and adjustments related to the loss, reaching a point where she is experiencing more peace and acceptance. Summary: A: Reestablishment is not the correct choice as it does not specifically address the completion of the grief work. B: Determining readiness to terminate the support group is premature, as the patient may still benefit from continued support. D: Replacing old memories with new ones is not supported by the patient's statement and does not necessarily indicate successful grief processing.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse counseling a patient with acute grief would assess the patient for:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because acute grief typically involves conflicting and unresolved emotions and thoughts related to the loss. The nurse would assess for unresolved issues to provide appropriate support and interventions. Choice A is incorrect as severe depressive symptoms may indicate complicated grief, not typical acute grief. Choice C is incorrect as increased arousal and hypervigilance are more characteristic of post-traumatic stress disorder. Choice D is incorrect as preoccupation with the image of the deceased may be a common experience in grief but does not encompass the full range of emotions and conflicts that acute grief entails.
Question 4 of 5
After undergoing two of nine electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) procedures, a client states, "I can�t even remember eating breakfast, so I want to stop the ECT." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It acknowledges the client's autonomy while also addressing their concerns. First, it recognizes the client's right to discontinue treatment. Second, it opens the door for a discussion to explore the client's worries and provide support. This response shows empathy and respects the client's decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the client's autonomy and fails to address their concerns. Choice B is not as appropriate as it suggests only talking to the doctor, missing the opportunity for the nurse to provide immediate support. Choice D is incorrect as it invalidates the client's experience of memory loss and fails to address their concerns.
Question 5 of 5
Which intervention would qualify as primary prevention of violent behaviors in children and adolescents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because limiting exposure to violence on TV, video, and computer games falls under primary prevention by addressing risk factors before violent behaviors occur. This intervention helps reduce the likelihood of children and adolescents developing violent tendencies by minimizing their exposure to violent content that can influence their behavior. A: Forbidding the child to continue friendships with violent peers is more of a secondary prevention strategy targeting existing risk factors, not primary prevention. C: Seeking counseling for a child who has been experimenting with drugs is also a secondary prevention strategy focusing on addressing a specific risk factor, not primary prevention. D: Showing a unified approach to parenting when dealing with a violent child is a tertiary prevention strategy aimed at managing and reducing harm after the behavior has already occurred, not primary prevention.
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