microbiology an introduction 12th edition test bank

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Isolation on cell cultures. This method is the gold standard for routine mumps diagnosis as it involves isolating the virus in cell cultures to confirm the presence of the mumps virus. PCR (choice A) is used for detecting viral RNA, not for routine diagnosis. ELISA (choice C) detects antibodies, not the virus itself. Immunofluorescence method (choice D) is used for visualizing viral antigens but is not as reliable as isolating the virus in cell cultures for diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Sterilization refers to the complete elimination of all microorganisms, including their spores, which are the most resistant form of microbial life. Spores have a tough outer coating that protects them from harsh conditions, making them more difficult to destroy compared to vegetative cells, viruses, and protozoa. Therefore, the correct answer is C because sterilization targets and eliminates all forms of microorganisms, including spores. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sterilization goes beyond just targeting vegetative cells, viruses, or protozoa; it aims to eliminate all microorganisms present.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptomycin. Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis that can cause hearing loss as a side effect. It is known to damage the cochlear and vestibular organs in the inner ear. The other choices, B: Isoniazid, C: Rifampicin, and D: Ethionamide, are not associated with causing hearing deterioration as a side effect. Isoniazid can rarely cause peripheral neuropathy, Rifampicin can lead to hepatotoxicity, and Ethionamide may cause gastrointestinal disturbances, but none of these drugs are known to specifically cause hearing loss.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thick gram-positive non-sporeforming bacilli. In botulism, the causative agent, Clostridium botulinum, is a thick gram-positive bacilli that does not form spores. This is a key characteristic morphologic feature. A: Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli with subterminal spore - This is incorrect as Clostridium botulinum does not have subterminal spores. C: Gram-positive spore-forming bacilli with terminal spore - Incorrect because Clostridium botulinum does not form spores. D: Thin mobile spore-forming bacilli with central spore - Incorrect because Clostridium botulinum is not thin, mobile, or spore-forming. In summary, the most characteristic morphologic feature of the botulism agent is being thick, gram-positive, and non-sporeforming, making choice B the correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Yersinia pestis. This bacterium causes the plague, which presents with fever and swollen lymph nodes. The safety pin appearance on Gram stain is characteristic of Yersinia pestis. B: Francisella tularensis causes tularemia, which presents differently and does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain. C: Brucella abortus causes brucellosis, which does not typically present with the same symptoms as described in the question. D: Clostridium botulinum causes botulism, which does not show safety pin appearance on Gram stain and does not typically present with fever and swollen lymph nodes.