Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions

Questions 28

ATI RN

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Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview is to greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan. This sequence ensures a patient-centered approach by first building a connection with the patient, allowing the patient to share their concerns and story, and then working collaboratively with the patient to address these concerns. It is important to start by building rapport to establish trust and a comfortable environment for the patient to open up about their health concerns. Inviting the patient's story allows the provider to understand the patient's perspective and how their symptoms are impacting their life. Establishing the agenda sets the priorities for the visit and ensures that both the provider and patient are on the same page. Expanding and clarifying the patient's story helps gather more detailed information, leading to a comprehensive assessment. Finally, negotiating a plan together with the patient ensures shared decision-making and a patient-centered approach

Question 2 of 5

You are observing a patient with heart failure and notice that there are pauses in his breathing. On closer examination, you notice that after the pauses the patient takes progressively deeper breaths and then progressively shallower breaths, which are followed by another apneic spell. The patient is not in any distress. You make the diagnosis of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respiration is characterized by a pattern of breathing with gradual increase and then decrease in depth of breaths, followed by a period of apnea. This cycle repeats itself. It is commonly seen in patients with heart failure and other conditions affecting the central nervous system. The patient in this scenario is not in distress, which is typical of Cheyne-Stokes respiration. Ataxic (Biot's) breathing is characterized by unpredictable irregular breaths with varying depths and irregular pauses; it is seen in patients with damage to the medulla. Kussmaul's respiration is deep, rapid, and labored breathing seen in metabolic acidosis. COPD with prolonged expiration is a characteristic finding in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, but in this case, the described breathing pattern is more consistent with Cheyne-Stokes respiration.

Question 3 of 5

Her abdominal examination reveals a gravid uterus but is otherwise unremarkable. On visualization of the anus there is a slight red, moist- appearing protrusion from the anus. As you have her bear down, the protrusion grows larger. On digital rectal examination you can feel an enlarged tender area on the posterior side. There is some blood on the glove after the examination. What disorder of the anus or rectum best fits this presentation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The described clinical presentation is consistent with internal hemorrhoids. The typical symptoms of internal hemorrhoids include painless rectal bleeding, protrusion from the anus during straining, and a feeling of incomplete evacuation. In this case, the protrusion is observed to be red, moist, and enlarges with bearing down, all indicative of internal hemorrhoids. The enlarged tender area felt on digital rectal examination supports the diagnosis. Additionally, the presence of blood on the glove after the examination is also suggestive of internal hemorrhoids causing bleeding. Anal fissures typically present with sharp pain during defecation and may have visible tears in the anal mucosa. External hemorrhoids are usually more painful and can be felt as a lump around the anus. Anorectal fistulas have different signs and symptoms, including discharge of pus and recurrent infections.

Question 4 of 5

A 36-year-old security officer comes to your clinic, complaining of a painless mass in his scrotum. He found it 3 days ago during a testicular self-examination. He has had no burning with urination and no pain during sexual intercourse. He denies any weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is notable for high blood pressure. He is married and has three healthy children. He denies using illegal drugs, smokes two to three cigars a week, and drinks six to eight alcoholic beverages per week. His mother is in good health and his father had high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. On physical examination he appears anxious but in no pain. His vital signs are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised and has no lesions. His inguinal region has no lymphadenopathy. Palpation of his scrotum shows a soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. There is no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring. With weight bearing there are no bulges. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What disorder of the scrotum does he most likely have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient most likely has a hydrocele based on the presentation of a painless, soft cystic-like lesion measuring 2 cm over his right testicle. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid surrounding the testicle within the tunica vaginalis, resulting in a painless scrotal swelling. It is common and can occur at any age but is more common in older individuals. A key feature of a hydrocele is that the swelling is not reducible, meaning it cannot be pushed back into the abdomen. In this patient, there was no difficulty getting a gloved finger through either inguinal ring, ruling out a scrotal hernia. Testicular tumors typically present as painless testicular masses but are usually solid rather than cystic. Varicoceles are enlarged veins within the scrotum and have a characteristic "bag of worms" appearance on palpation, which is not described in this case.

Question 5 of 5

His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant. His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. What is the most likely cause of his pain?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of decreased bowel sounds, rebound tenderness, and involuntary guarding in the right lower quadrant is highly suggestive of acute appendicitis. These signs indicate inflammation and potential perforation of the appendix, leading to the classic symptoms of appendicitis. The pain in this case is likely due to the inflammatory process involving the appendix. The absence of abnormal findings in the rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations further supports the diagnosis of acute appendicitis as the most likely cause of the patient's pain.

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