ATI RN
microbiology chapter 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Peritrichous bacteria:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because peritrichous bacteria have flagella distributed all over their surface, allowing them to move in various directions. Choice A is incorrect because bacteria with a single flagellum at one pole are called monotrichous. Choice C is incorrect as bacteria with a single flagellum at each pole are known as amphitrichous. Choice D is incorrect because peritrichous bacteria have multiple flagella all over their surface, not limited to one or both poles.
Question 2 of 5
A 55-year-old patient with a characteristic rash, fever, dizziness has been admitted to a hospital. He has been provisionally diagnosed with typhus. No similar cases have been reported. In his youth (15 years old) the patient suffered typhus in a boarding school. What disease is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Brill's disease. Brill's disease is a relapse of typhus that occurs in patients who had typhus in their youth. The patient's history of having typhus at 15 years old is a key indicator. Brill's disease is characterized by symptoms such as rash, fever, and dizziness, which align with the patient's current presentation. Summary of other choices: B: Typhoid fever - While typhoid fever may present with similar symptoms to typhus, the patient's history of having typhus in the past makes this less likely. C: Measles - Measles does not typically present with dizziness, and the patient's history of typhus in the past is more indicative of Brill's disease. D: Rubella - Rubella does not typically cause dizziness, and the patient's history of typhus in the past points more towards Brill's disease.
Question 3 of 5
Which one is true about the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it encompasses the true statements regarding the laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infections. A: Bacteriuria of less than 10^5 can be significant in treated patients due to the development of antibiotic resistance. B: Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis may be significant regardless of quantity due to their pathogenic nature. C: Leukocyturia indicates inflammation, and even a lower number of leukocytes can be clinically significant. Therefore, option D covers all these aspects making it the correct choice.
Question 4 of 5
A bioterrorist has mailed an envelope with a powder that is suspected to contain anthrax causative agent. This envelope can remain dangerous for a long time, because anthrax causative agent:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Anthrax causative agent is Bacillus anthracis, which forms spores. Step 2: Spores are highly resistant structures that can survive for a long time. Step 3: These spores can germinate into active bacteria when conditions are favorable. Step 4: The presence of spores in the powder makes it dangerous even long after being mailed. Summary: A: Incorrect - Anthrax does not form a protein capsule. B: Incorrect - Anthrax does not form a polysaccharide capsule. C: Correct - Anthrax forms spores that are highly resistant. D: Incorrect - Anthrax does not form flagella.
Question 5 of 5
After its formation, the tetanus exotoxins:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why answer D is correct: 1. Tetanus exotoxins are produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria. 2. Once formed, the exotoxins can spread through the bloodstream. 3. Retrograde axonal transport allows the exotoxins to travel to the central nervous system (CNS). 4. In the CNS, the exotoxins can cause the symptoms of tetanus. 5. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as tetanus exotoxins do not follow those pathways. In summary, option D is correct as tetanus exotoxins can spread through the blood and reach the CNS via retrograde axonal transport, while the other options do not align with the known pathophysiology of tetanus.
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