Microbiology Chapter 14 Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Treatment. Tularin is a specific immunizing agent used for the treatment of tularemia. The purpose of tularin administration in this patient is to provide a targeted treatment against the suspected tularemia infection. It helps the patient's immune system to recognize and fight against the bacteria causing the disease. Explanation for other choices: A: Allergy diagnostics - Tularin is not used for allergy diagnostics, as it is specifically indicated for tularemia treatment. B: Prognosis for the disease - Tularin is not used to predict the outcome of the disease but rather to treat the infection. D: Treatment evaluation - Tularin is not used for evaluating the effectiveness of treatment but for actively treating the tularemia infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vibrio cholerae. Cholera is caused by this specific bacterium. Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that leads to severe diarrhea and dehydration. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, Escherichia coli can cause various infections but not cholera, and Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery, not cholera. Therefore, the correct choice is B.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium is a Gram-negative diplococcus commonly associated with meningitis. Neisseria meningitidis is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in young adults and adolescents. It is known for causing fever, headache, and neck stiffness. The other choices, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Klebsiella pneumoniae, are not typically Gram-negative diplococci and are not commonly associated with the symptoms described. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive coccus, Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod. Therefore, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-positive. Staphylococcus aureus is a common pathogen causing abscesses. Streptococcus pyogenes (B) is Gram-positive cocci in chains, not clusters. Micrococcus luteus (C) is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (D) is catalase-negative and coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Bacterial spores are NOT used for cell division. Bacterial spores are dormant, resistant forms of bacteria that are formed in response to harsh environmental conditions. They are not involved in cell division but rather serve as a survival mechanism for the bacteria. A: They can deform the cell or not - This is true. Bacterial spores can deform the cell or not depending on the conditions. B: They can be terminal, subterminal, and central - This is true. Bacterial spores can be located at different positions within the bacterial cell. D: They are formed for 6-8h - This is incorrect. The formation of bacterial spores can take variable time periods depending on the species and environmental conditions.