ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with ecchymoses, mucosal bleeding, and altered mental status. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors, resulting in prolonged PT and aPTT, low fibrinogen levels, and elevated D-dimer. This pattern matches the laboratory findings in the patient. In liver cirrhosis (choice A), there is a decrease in clotting factors synthesis, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT. Hemophilia A (choice C) is a genetic disorder that affects specific clotting factors, typically leading to prolonged aPTT but not PT. Vitamin K deficiency (choice D) impairs the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT but not aPTT and low levels of factors II, VII, IX, and X.
Question 3 of 5
To promote drainage and reduce pressure from fluid, Nurse Selma nursing intervention is to have the child assume any of the following positions, EXCEPT _____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lie on the affected area. This position would hinder drainage and increase pressure on the affected area. A: Tilt head to the side if sitting up, is correct as it promotes drainage. C: Putting pillows behind the head can also aid drainage. D: Lying on the non-affected ear can help reduce pressure on the affected side.
Question 4 of 5
Upon entry of the patient to ER, the nurse must FIRST perform which nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cleanse the bite with soap and running water. This is the first nursing intervention because it is crucial to prevent infection. Cleaning the bite area helps remove bacteria and debris, reducing the risk of infection. Injecting with rabies immune globulin (choice A) and rabies vaccine (choice C) should be done later as per protocol after assessing the situation. Administering pain reliever (choice D) is important but not the first priority in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following actions should be taken first when encountering a person experiencing an allergic reaction with signs of respiratory distress?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess the severity of the reaction. This should be the first action taken because it helps determine the urgency of the situation and guides subsequent steps. Assessing the severity allows for appropriate intervention - from calling emergency services if the reaction is severe, to administering medication if necessary. A: Administering an epinephrine auto-injector should only be done if the severity of the reaction warrants it, as it is a potent medication that can have serious side effects if used inappropriately. B: Positioning the person comfortably is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction takes precedence to ensure prompt and appropriate care. C: Monitoring vital signs is important, but assessing the severity of the reaction is crucial in determining the immediate course of action.
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