Midwifery Test Questions

Questions 64

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Midwifery Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy treatment for cancer is given to facilitate surgical resection. When the outcomes of cancer therapies are evaluated, the terms complete response and partial response often are used. Partial response means that

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because partial response in cancer therapy typically refers to a reduction in tumor size by more than 50%. This reduction indicates some positive effect of the treatment on the tumor. Choice A is incorrect because partial response is not solely based on the percentage of patients demonstrating remission, it is about the tumor response. Choice B is incorrect because survival at 5 years is related to overall survival rate, not specifically to the tumor response. Choice D is incorrect because the conversion from unresectable to resectable is more related to the operability of the tumor, rather than the response to chemotherapy.

Question 2 of 5

Specific management for incomplete uterine rupture:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immediate cesarean is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Monitoring for signs of shock is essential to detect any deterioration in the mother's condition. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the mother's hemodynamic status. Option B is incorrect as observation alone may delay necessary interventions. Option C is partially correct as immediate cesarean is necessary but does not address monitoring for shock and fluid resuscitation. Option D is incorrect as continuous monitoring alone is insufficient to manage incomplete uterine rupture.

Question 3 of 5

The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (GCS of 3 to 8 and hypotension) because hypotension is not a specific indication for intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring according to the Brain Trauma Foundation guidelines. The rationale is that hypotension is a systemic issue affecting overall perfusion, whereas ICP monitoring is specifically for assessing intracranial dynamics. A, C, and D are incorrect choices because they all involve conditions that could potentially indicate increased intracranial pressure and the need for monitoring. A) Abnormal head CT indicates structural brain injury, C) age > 40 is a risk factor for poor outcomes after traumatic brain injury, and D) bradycardia can be a sign of increased ICP affecting brainstem function. Therefore, these conditions warrant ICP monitoring according to guidelines.

Question 4 of 5

R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CBC with WBC differential. This test can help rule out infectious causes of left lower quadrant pain, such as diverticulitis or colitis, by assessing for elevated white blood cell count and left shift. A CT scan (A) with contrast may be indicated if the patient's condition worsens or if initial tests are inconclusive. Colonoscopy (C) is more appropriate for evaluating chronic or intermittent abdominal pain, not acute symptoms. Barium enema (D) is an outdated test and not commonly used for diagnosing acute abdominal pain.

Question 5 of 5

When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, the presentation is said to be

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Footling. When a hand/foot lies alongside the presenting part, it indicates a footling presentation where the foot is presenting first. This is a type of breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet come out first. A transverse presentation would mean the baby is lying sideways, and an unstable lie refers to the baby's position not being fixed. Therefore, the presence of a hand/foot alongside the presenting part specifically indicates a footling presentation, making choice A the correct answer.

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