Midwifery Exam Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Metformin should be held if the morning blood sugar is < 200 mg/dL to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis postoperatively. 2. Warfarin should be held 5 days before surgery to prevent excessive bleeding during the procedure. 3. Beta blocker (metoprolol) can be continued on the day of surgery to prevent rebound hypertension. 4. Vitamin E can be continued as it does not have significant interactions or adverse effects in this scenario. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need to hold metformin and warfarin appropriately. - Choice B is incorrect as it discontinues medications too early and does not address metformin management. - Choice C is incorrect as it only addresses warfarin and does not consider metformin or other medications. - Choice D is the most appropriate approach as it addresses the specific considerations for each medication based on their effects and interactions.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Four weekly up to 28 weeks. Gestational diabetes requires close monitoring of blood sugar levels and fetal well-being. ANC care every four weeks up to 28 weeks ensures proper management and early detection of any complications. Weekly or two weekly visits (options A and B) may be too frequent and unnecessary at this stage unless there are specific concerns. Three weekly visits (option D) may not provide adequate monitoring intervals. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for the optimal management of gestational diabetes at this stage of pregnancy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Baseline cardiac catheterization. Given the presence of a new onset grade IIVI crescendo-decrescendo cardiac murmur, a baseline cardiac catheterization is necessary to assess the severity and etiology of the murmur. This procedure will provide crucial information on the structure and function of the heart, helping to determine the appropriate management plan. A: Annual or biannual serial echocardiography is not necessary as the patient is currently asymptomatic and echocardiography has already revealed mild aortic calcification. B: Modification of activity level is not the immediate priority as the patient is very active physically and not reporting any limitations to daily activities. D: Statin therapy is not indicated based solely on the presence of a new murmur without further assessment of cardiac function through cardiac catheterization.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wernicke's encephalopathy. Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological complication due to thiamine deficiency, which can occur in severe cases of vomiting, leading to impaired brain function. Sheehan's syndrome is a complication of postpartum pituitary necrosis. Maurice encephalitis is a fictional term not related to this context. Antepartum bleeding is not a typical complication of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, the correct answer is A due to the potential neurological impact of severe vomiting on thiamine levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occipito-posterior. This position occurs when the baby's head is facing forward but towards the mother's spine. This position can cause intense back pain during labor because the baby's head puts pressure on the mother's lower back. Occipito-anterior (A) is the most common and ideal position for labor. Transverse position (B) is when the baby is lying sideways, which may cause prolonged labor but not necessarily intense back pain. Occipito-lateral (D) is a less common position where the baby's head is facing sideways, which may not specifically cause intense back pain.