ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 8th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Mr. Martin is a 72-year-old smoker who comes to you for his hypertension visit. You note that with deep palpation you feel a pulsatile mass which is about 4 centimeters in diameter. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presence of a palpable pulsatile abdominal mass in a patient like Mr. Martin, who is a smoker and at risk for vascular diseases, is concerning for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Immediate referral to a vascular surgeon is essential for further evaluation and management. AAA can be a life-threatening condition if left untreated, as it can lead to rupture and severe internal bleeding. Therefore, prompt specialist evaluation and monitoring are crucial in such cases. Waiting for 3 or 6 months for reevaluation could potentially lead to a delayed diagnosis and increase the risk of complications. Abdominal ultrasound is typically the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the presence and size of the aneurysm.
Question 2 of 5
Jim is a 60-year-old man who presents with vomiting. He denies seeing any blood with emesis, which has been occurring for 2 days. He does note a dark, granular substance resembling the coffee left in the filter after brewing. What do you suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of dark, granular material resembling coffee grounds in the vomitus suggests upper gastrointestinal bleeding. One common cause of upper GI bleeding is a peptic ulcer, which can present with symptoms such as vomiting blood or coffee ground material. Peptic ulcers can develop in the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum). Risk factors for peptic ulcers include infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, and alcohol consumption. Prompt evaluation and management are necessary in cases of upper GI bleeding to address the underlying cause and prevent complications.
Question 3 of 5
A 55-year-old smoker complains of chest pain and gestures with a closed fist over her sternum to describe it. Which of the following diagnoses should you consider because of her gesture?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The closed fist gesture over the sternum to describe chest pain is a typical characteristic of angina pectoris. Angina pectoris is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. The gesture of clenching a fist over the sternum is often used to describe the tight, squeezing, or pressure-like discomfort experienced with angina. This type of chest pain is typically triggered by physical or emotional stress and is relieved by rest or medications like nitroglycerin. Considering the patient's age, smoking history, and the description of the chest pain gesture, angina pectoris should be a top consideration in this case.
Question 4 of 5
A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A subconjunctival hemorrhage is a common and benign condition characterized by blood in the space between the conjunctiva and sclera of the eye. The condition often presents as a painless, sharply demarcated area of redness on the white part of the eye, typically without associated discharge or visual disturbances. In this case, the absence of eye pain, discharge, visual disturbances, and clear cornea make subconjunctival hemorrhage the most likely diagnosis. The history of forceful coughing with a recent cold is also consistent with the increased intraocular pressure leading to a rupture of a small blood vessel, resulting in the hemorrhage. Treatment is not usually required as the condition is self-limiting and resolves on its own over time.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of visual acuity, the numbers in the ratio 20/100 represent a comparison between the patient's vision and normal vision. Specifically, a visual acuity of 20/100 means that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is reduced, as she needs to be closer to see the same level of detail compared to someone with normal vision.
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