Midwifery Practice Questions

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT urogram. This is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie's microscopic hematuria. A CT urogram can provide detailed imaging of the urinary tract to identify any structural abnormalities or causes of hematuria. A urology consultation (choice A) may be necessary after the imaging results. Upper urinary imaging (choice C) is not specific enough and may not provide a comprehensive evaluation. Cystoscopy (choice D) is invasive and typically reserved for cases where lower urinary tract issues are suspected, which is not indicated in Melanie's case without further evaluation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Escherichia coli. Puerperal sepsis is often caused by endogenous bacteria from the mother's own flora. E. coli is a common endogenous bacteria found in the gastrointestinal tract and can cause infection during childbirth. Chlamydia trachomatis is a sexually transmitted infection, not typically associated with puerperal sepsis. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not puerperal sepsis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an environmental pathogen, not typically an endogenous cause of puerperal sepsis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not associated with hyperacidity but is more likely due to complications such as HELLP syndrome or liver involvement. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not hyperacidity. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia should not be attributed to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Frank breech presentation. This is because the frank breech presentation is the most common type of breech presentation, accounting for about 50-70% of all breech births. In a frank breech presentation, the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the legs extended up towards the head. This position is considered the most favorable for a vaginal delivery compared to the other types of breech presentations. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Complete breech presentation - This type of breech presentation occurs when the baby's buttocks are presenting first with the knees bent and the feet near the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. C: Incomplete breech presentation - In this type, one or both of the baby's legs are presenting first instead of the buttocks. It is less common than the frank breech presentation. D: Footling breech presentation - This type occurs when one or both of the baby's feet