Midwifery Practice Questions

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compound presentation. This term refers to the situation where there is more than one part of the fetus on the pelvic brim at the onset of labor. This can include a hand or arm alongside the head or another body part. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Unstable lie refers to the fetus being in a transverse position. B: Fetal malpresentation indicates an abnormal presentation of the fetus, such as breech or transverse. C: Fetal malposition refers to the fetus being in a suboptimal position, like occiput posterior. Thus, the best choice is D as it specifically describes the scenario of multiple fetal parts on the pelvic brim.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pyuria. Pyuria is a common feature in acute pyelonephritis, as it indicates the presence of white blood cells in the urine due to the infection. Fever, CVA tenderness, and gross hematuria are all common features of acute pyelonephritis. Fever is a systemic response to infection, CVA tenderness indicates inflammation of the kidney, and gross hematuria is often seen due to inflammation and damage to the kidney tissue. Therefore, the absence of pyuria would be unexpected in a patient with suspected acute pyelonephritis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tonic. During the tonic stage of eclampsia, the muscles go into a prolonged contraction leading to an arched back and tightly clenched teeth. This is due to sustained muscle rigidity. In contrast, the clonic stage involves rhythmic muscle contractions and relaxations, not sustained rigidity. The premonitory stage is characterized by warning signs like headaches and visual disturbances, not specific physical postures. Coma is a severe stage of unconsciousness, not associated with specific physical postures or muscle rigidity seen in the tonic stage of eclampsia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in obstructive shock due to a large pulmonary embolus, there is increased resistance to blood flow out of the right ventricle, leading to elevated right ventricular pressure. This causes a backup of blood into the pulmonary circulation, increasing left ventricular pressure. The increased left ventricular pressure results in decreased cardiac output as the left ventricle struggles to pump against the increased resistance. A: Elevated atrial and decreased ventricular pressures - This is incorrect as obstructive shock typically results in elevated ventricular pressures due to increased resistance. B: Elevated right-sided and decreased left-sided pressures - This is partially true, but C is a more complete answer that explains the consequences of these pressures on cardiac output. D: Elevated left ventricular pressure and decreased systemic vascular resistance - This is incorrect as obstructive shock leads to increased, not decreased, systemic vascular resistance due to the embolus obstructing blood flow.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not associated with hyperacidity but is more likely due to complications such as HELLP syndrome or liver involvement. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria, not hyperacidity. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia should not be attributed to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable.