ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

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ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions

Question 1 of 5

Management experience prepares the practical nurse to be a Clinical NCO or a Senior Clinical NCO. These positions are normally held by which of the following?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: E6, E7, or E8. Clinical NCO or Senior Clinical NCO positions are typically held by individuals at the E6, E7, or E8 pay grades in the military. These positions require a higher level of experience and leadership, which align with the ranks of E6, E7, or E8. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Army Nurse Corps officers, First Sergeants, E3, E4, or E5 are not the typical ranks that hold Clinical NCO positions.

Question 2 of 5

Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.

Question 3 of 5

The client diagnosed with acute pancreatitis has developed a pseudocyst that ruptures. Which procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chest tube insertion. In the context of a pancreatic pseudocyst rupturing, a chest tube may be needed if the pseudocyst extends into the pleural space, leading to a pleural effusion. Choice A, paracentesis, involves the removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, not the pleural space. Choice C, lumbar puncture, is a procedure performed to collect cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal canal, not relevant in this scenario. Choice D, biopsy of the pancreas, is not indicated in the immediate management of a ruptured pseudocyst.

Question 4 of 5

A client is ordered lisinopril (Zestril) for the treatment of hypertension. He asks the nurse about possible adverse effects. The nurse should inform him about which common adverse effects of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B, C.' Dizziness and headache are common side effects of ACE inhibitors due to their blood pressure-lowering effects. Constipation is not a common adverse effect associated with ACE inhibitors, so choice A is incorrect. Choice B (Dizziness) and choice C (Headache) are more commonly seen and are directly related to the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors, making them the correct choices.

Question 5 of 5

Which type of diet is recommended for patients with diverticulitis during an acute flare-up?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During an acute flare-up of diverticulitis, a low-residue diet is recommended. This diet helps reduce bowel movements and minimizes irritants in the colon, which can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. High-fiber diets, like choice A, are typically recommended for diverticulosis prevention but may exacerbate symptoms during a flare-up due to increased bulk in the stool. Low-fat (choice C) and high-protein (choice D) diets are not specifically indicated for diverticulitis flare-ups.

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