ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Accountability in personnel management involves being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which includes listening to and addressing the suggestions and complaints of soldiers. This category focuses on the responsibility and answerability aspect of the nurse manager's role. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because personal/professional development is about growth and improvement, individual training pertains to specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to the physical presentation and fitness levels, none of which directly address the task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Integrating drug therapy knowledge is not a terminal learning objective for Phase I of the M6 Practical Nurse Course. Phase I typically focuses on foundational knowledge and skills, such as understanding basic-level anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and nutrition (Choice A), performing basic-level pharmacological calculations (Choice B), and identifying basic principles of field nursing (Choice D). While drug therapy knowledge is important in nursing practice, it is not a specific terminal learning objective for Phase I of this course.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an audible S3 in a client with mitral valve prolapse could indicate heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is less urgent as occasional unifocal PVCs are common. Choice B is important but can be addressed after the client with an audible S3. Choice D, a client with pericarditis in normal sinus rhythm, is stable compared to a client with potential heart failure symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.