RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

Questions 66

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B Questions

Question 1 of 5

In the context of personality disorders, what is a common characteristic of a client with Borderline Personality Disorder?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fear of abandonment and impulsiveness. Individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder often exhibit intense fears of abandonment, engage in impulsive behaviors such as self-harm or substance abuse, and struggle with unstable relationships. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the characteristic features commonly associated with Borderline Personality Disorder. A need for admiration and grandiosity (Choice A) is more characteristic of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. Unlawful actions and lack of empathy (Choice B) are more typical of Antisocial Personality Disorder. A disregard for others with manipulative behaviors (Choice D) is often seen in individuals with traits of Histrionic or Antisocial Personality Disorders.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Administering oxygen by face mask is the priority intervention when late decelerations are observed in the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and administering oxygen helps to improve fetal oxygenation. Repositioning the client may also be necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord, but providing oxygen takes precedence to enhance fetal oxygenation. Decreasing IV fluids may not directly address the underlying issue leading to late decelerations. Documenting the findings is important but should not be the first action taken when managing late decelerations.

Question 3 of 5

A client is being prepared for discharge after a stroke. Which of the following interventions should be included in the discharge plan to prevent complications?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide education on proper medication management. Proper medication management is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke recurrence and ensuring the client adheres to the treatment plan. While physical therapy, incentive spirometer use, and daily ambulation are important aspects of stroke rehabilitation, they are not directly related to preventing complications during the discharge phase.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient with heart failure. Which of the following lab results should be reviewed before administering the medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium level. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can potentiate the effects of low potassium levels, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to review the patient's potassium level before administering digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because calcium level, hemoglobin level, and white blood cell count are not directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.

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