RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Fluticasone, a corticosteroid medication commonly used to manage asthma, can lead to oral candidiasis due to its immunosuppressive effects. This fungal infection can manifest as white patches in the mouth and throat. Monitoring for signs of oral candidiasis is essential to initiate appropriate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. Hypertension and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this medication, making them incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take is to check for orthostatic hypotension. This step is crucial as it ensures the client's safety during the transfer process. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure that can occur when a person moves from a lying down position to a sitting or standing position. By checking for orthostatic hypotension before transferring the client, the nurse can prevent potential complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or falls. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this scenario as they do not address the immediate safety concern of assessing for orthostatic hypotension.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Performance appraisals should indeed be written in measurable terms to ensure objective evaluations based on specific outcomes achieved. This allows for a clear assessment of staff performance. Choice B is incorrect because appraisal objectives should be tailored to each staff member's role and responsibilities, not necessarily applicable at every level. Choice C is incorrect as performance appraisals should be objective and based on predefined criteria, not solely on the nurse manager's preferences. Choice D is incorrect as completed appraisals usually require approval from higher-level management or HR, not necessarily a provider.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Ciprofloxacin. Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic effective in treating anthrax exposure. Fluconazole (Choice A) is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, not anthrax. Tobramycin (Choice B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections but is not the first line of treatment for anthrax. Vancomycin (Choice D) is also an antibiotic, but it is not the preferred choice for treating anthrax.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A low WBC count (3,300/mm3) is a contraindication to clozapine because this medication can cause severe neutropenia. Neutropenia is a significant reduction in white blood cell count, increasing the risk of infections. Elevated fasting blood glucose, asthma, and hypertension are not direct contraindications to clozapine.