ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5

Questions 82

ATI RN

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ATI RN Custom Exams Set 5 Questions

Question 1 of 5

In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The position that best shows chest expansion as well as its movements is when the client is sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B (Prone) and Choice D (Supine) involve positions where the chest's movements and expansion are less visible and may not provide an accurate representation of respiratory function. Choice C (Sidelying) can also limit the visibility of chest expansion compared to the sitting position.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse supervises care of a client in Buck's traction. The nurse determines that care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Turning the client to the unaffected side helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Dorsiflexion of the foot on the affected leg helps maintain proper alignment and prevent foot drop. The incorrect choices are A and D. Removing the foam boot multiple times per day can disrupt traction, and asking the client to dorsiflex the foot may not be appropriate without ensuring proper alignment and direction from the healthcare provider.

Question 3 of 5

The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate the ulcers and delay healing. Choices A, B, and C could potentially worsen the condition. Brushing with a soft-bristle toothbrush may cause discomfort, rinsing with Listerine mouthwash can be too harsh on the ulcers, and swallowing antifungal solution is not recommended unless specified by a healthcare provider.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rule-out nephritic syndrome. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with rule-out nephritic syndrome is to assess the client's sacrum for dependent edema. Dependent edema is common in nephritic syndrome due to protein loss, and monitoring for this helps manage the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Monitoring the urine for bright-red bleeding may be more relevant for a client with a different condition, such as glomerulonephritis. Evaluating the calorie count of a 500-mg protein diet is not directly related to managing nephritic syndrome. Monitoring for a high serum albumin level does not directly address the symptom of dependent edema associated with nephritic syndrome.

Question 5 of 5

The system used at the division level and forward comprises six basic modules. Which module is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The Patient Holding Squad is the module that is composed of practical nurses, medical specialists, and equipment to provide medical support for minimal care patients. This squad focuses on providing necessary care for patients who require minimal attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically cater to the needs of minimal care patients. The Treatment Squad may involve more intensive procedures, the Area Support Squad focuses on broader support functions, and the Surgical Squad is specialized for surgical interventions.

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