ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Limiting fluid intake is essential in managing patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen kidney function. Increasing potassium intake is not recommended as patients with kidney disease often need to limit potassium. Providing a high-protein diet may put extra strain on the kidneys, so it is not ideal. Administering IV antibiotics is not a standard treatment for chronic kidney disease.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin 12 g/dL. In a client with heart failure, a decrease in hemoglobin levels can indicate anemia, which can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for appropriate management. Choice A, Potassium 4.0 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not typically require immediate reporting. Choice C, BUN 18 mg/dL, and Choice D, Sodium 137 mEq/L, are also within normal ranges and not directly related to heart failure management. Therefore, the hemoglobin level is the most critical finding to report in this scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin level. Monitoring the serum albumin level helps assess the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Serum albumin is a protein that reflects the long-term nutritional status of a patient. Serum calcium level (choice A) is not directly related to TPN effectiveness. Blood glucose level (choice B) is important to monitor in diabetic patients but is not the primary indicator of TPN efficacy. Serum sodium level (choice D) is more related to fluid balance and electrolyte status rather than the effectiveness of TPN.
Question 5 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is beginning therapy with clozapine. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should continue taking clozapine even if their symptoms improve. Abruptly discontinuing the medication can lead to relapse. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding clozapine therapy. Regular blood work monitoring is necessary due to potential side effects, weight gain is a common side effect of clozapine, and reporting signs of fever is important as it can indicate a serious side effect of clozapine.
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