Nursing Process Questions

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the American Cancer Society recommends women to have a mammogram annually starting at age 45, then have the option to transition to biennial screening at age 55. This recommendation is based on evidence that regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer early, increasing chances of successful treatment. Choice A is incorrect because self-examinations are no longer recommended as a routine screening method. Choice B is incorrect as clinical breast exams are not as effective as mammograms for detecting breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as normal receptor assays are not part of routine breast cancer screening guidelines.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Impaired gas exchange related to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates as it directly addresses the underlying physiological issue of impaired gas exchange due to alveolar-capillary membrane changes. The infiltrates indicate infection and inflammation in the lower lobes, leading to difficulty in oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. This diagnosis aligns with the patient's medical condition and helps guide nursing interventions focused on improving oxygenation. Choice A is incorrect because ineffective breathing pattern is a broad diagnosis that does not specifically address the gas exchange issue seen in pneumonia. Choice B is incorrect as the risk for infection is already present with the diagnosis of pneumonia and does not directly address the patient's current respiratory status. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not the primary concern in a patient with pneumonia and lower lobe infiltrates.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because reassessing the client's diet, medication, and lifestyle habits allows the nurse to identify any factors contributing to the elevated blood glucose levels. By identifying possible issues, the nurse can make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan to better manage the client's condition. Increasing medication dosage without understanding the root cause may lead to adverse effects. Simply documenting the elevated levels without taking proactive measures does not address the problem. Notifying the client's family is not the nurse's first action; the focus should be on assessing and addressing the client's needs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use aseptic technique for the insertion site. Aseptic technique is necessary to prevent infection when accessing the intracranial pressure monitoring system. Aseptic technique involves maintaining a sterile field during the insertion process, reducing the risk of introducing pathogens. Using clean technique for cleansing connections (choice B) may introduce contaminants to the insertion site. Sterile technique for cleansing the insertion site (choice C) is not necessary and may be overly stringent. Closing leaks in the tubing with tape (choice D) does not address the prevention of infection at the insertion site.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because successful treatment of diabetes insipidus aims to reduce excessive urine output and dehydration. A fluid intake of less than 2,500mL in 24 hours indicates proper control of fluid balance. Choice B is incorrect because urine output of more than 200mL/hour suggests ongoing excessive fluid loss, which is not indicative of successful treatment. Choice C is incorrect as a blood pressure of 90/50mmHg is low and may indicate hypotension, which is not a specific indicator of successful diabetes insipidus treatment. Choice D is incorrect because a pulse rate of 126 beats/min is not a direct marker of diabetes insipidus treatment success. In summary, the correct indicator of successful treatment of diabetes insipidus is a reduction in fluid intake, option A, as it signifies improved fluid balance and hydration status.