ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Choose the condition that exhibits blood values with a low pH and a high PCO :
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Respiratory acidosis Rationale: 1. Respiratory acidosis is caused by inadequate ventilation leading to increased PCO? and decreased pH. 2. Low pH indicates acidosis, and high PCO? indicates respiratory component. 3. Metabolic acidosis (B) results from non-respiratory causes. 4. Respiratory alkalosis (C) is characterized by high pH and low PCO?. 5. Metabolic alkalosis (D) is caused by non-respiratory factors with high pH.
Question 2 of 5
For a client with polycythemia vera, how can the nurse help decrease the risk for thrombus formation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Help the client don thromboembolic stocking or support hose during waking hours. This intervention helps decrease the risk for thrombus formation in polycythemia vera by promoting venous return and preventing blood pooling in the lower extremities. Compression stockings improve circulation and reduce the risk of blood clots. Isometric exercises (choice A) may increase blood pressure and heart rate, potentially worsening the risk of thrombus formation. Drinking excess fluid (choice C) can lead to hypervolemia and increase the risk of clotting. Resting immediately if chest pain develops (choice D) is important but does not directly address the prevention of thrombus formation in polycythemia vera.
Question 3 of 5
A client has undergone the Snellen eye chart test and has 20/40 vision. Which of the ff is true for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In the Snellen eye chart test, the first number (20) represents the distance at which the client is viewing the chart, and the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. Therefore, a client with 20/40 vision sees letters at 20 feet that others with normal vision can read at 40 feet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the interpretation of the 20/40 vision result from the Snellen eye chart test. B is incorrect because the client does not see letters at 40 feet that others can read at 20 feet. Choices C and D are incorrect because the Snellen eye chart test measures visual acuity, not color perception.
Question 4 of 5
Which information indicates a nurse has a good understanding of a goal? It is a statement describing the patient�s accomplishments without a time
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: A goal should be measurable to track progress effectively. Step 2: The statement "a measurable change in a patient's physical state" indicates a specific and quantifiable outcome. Step 3: This aligns with the SMART criteria for goal setting - Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound. Step 4: Other choices lack the specificity and measurability required for a clear goal. Step 5: Choice A talks about restriction, which is not directly related to understanding a goal. Step 6: Choice B focuses on negative responses, which is not necessarily indicative of understanding the goal. Step 7: Choice C is vague and lacks the specificity of a measurable outcome.
Question 5 of 5
A client is being prepared for cardiac catheterization. The nurse performs an initial assessment and records the vital signs. Which of the following data collected can be classified as subjective data?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Subjective data refers to information provided by the client based on their feelings, perceptions, or beliefs. Nausea is a symptom that the client experiences and reports subjectively. The client feels nauseous, which is not something directly measurable like blood pressure, heart rate, or respiratory rate. Therefore, nausea is the correct choice for subjective data. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all objective data that can be measured and observed.
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