Midwifery Exam Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acyclovir. The rationale is that sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) can sometimes be associated with viral infections, such as herpes simplex virus. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that can potentially help treat the underlying viral infection causing SSHL. It is important to address the potential viral etiology before considering other treatments. Summary of other choices: B: Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and edema, not SSHL. C: Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots, not indicated for SSHL. D: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is sometimes used for SSHL, but addressing any potential viral infection with Acyclovir would be a more appropriate initial step.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Multiple gestations are at higher risk for complications such as premature labor, where contractions start before 37 weeks, leading to preterm birth. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome can occur in identical twins sharing a placenta, causing unequal blood flow. Preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, is more common in multiple pregnancies. Therefore, all choices A, B, and C are correct as they are common complications associated with multiple gestations.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Precipitate labor. Precipitate labor refers to a rapid labor and delivery process. It is matched with the statement in column A because it is associated with a sudden and quick progression of labor, leading to a rapid delivery of the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Colicky uterus - This term is not related to rapid labor but rather refers to uterine contractions that are painful and intermittent. B: Constriction ring dystocia - This term describes a condition where there is a tight band around the uterus, causing difficulty in the delivery process, which is different from the rapid progression seen in precipitate labor. D: Cervical dystocia - This term refers to a condition where there are issues with the dilation or effacement of the cervix, not directly related to the speed of labor as in precipitate labor.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoidance of elective surgery and nonessential medications. This is the initial management for a patient with thrombocytopenia and abnormal bleeding time, possibly indicating immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Avoiding surgery and medications that can worsen thrombocytopenia is crucial to prevent bleeding complications. Prednisone (B) is not the first-line treatment for ITP, especially without confirming the diagnosis. Monoclonal antibody therapy (C) such as rituximab is usually reserved for refractory cases. Splenectomy (D) is considered only if other treatments fail as a last resort.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.