Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

During the postpartum assessment, a new mother reports experiencing mild cramping and uterine contractions while breastfeeding. What physiological process is responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Oxytocin release is responsible for the mild cramping and uterine contractions experienced by the new mother while breastfeeding. When a baby suckles at the breast, it stimulates nerve endings that signal the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in stimulating the contraction of the uterine muscles, helping the uterus to contract back to its pre-pregnancy size. This process, known as uterine involution, is essential for postpartum recovery and preventing excessive bleeding. Therefore, the new mother's experience of mild cramping and uterine contractions while breastfeeding is a normal physiological response mediated by the release of oxytocin.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports a history of sun exposure and outdoor activities. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described in the question is characteristic of tinea versicolor, a fungal skin infection caused by Malassezia furfur. The hypopigmented macules with fine scaling are often seen on the trunk and proximal extremities, particularly in areas that are more prone to sebum production. Patients with tinea versicolor may have a history of sun exposure and outdoor activities as the organism responsible for the infection thrives in warm, humid environments. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents such as ketoconazole or selenium sulfide.

Question 3 of 5

A woman in active labor has been diagnosed with placenta previa. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a woman in active labor with placenta previa, the priority nursing intervention is to prepare for an immediate cesarean section. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, which can lead to severe bleeding during labor and delivery. The risk of hemorrhage is significant, making a cesarean section the safest option for both the mother and the baby in this situation. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent complications and ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Administering intravenous oxytocin to augment labor or inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output would not address the immediate risk of hemorrhage associated with placenta previa. Implementing bed rest and continuous fetal monitoring may be part of the overall care plan but not the priority intervention in this urgent situation.

Question 4 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye, along with a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels, is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). In CRAO, there is a sudden blockage of the central retinal artery, leading to ischemia of the retina. The cherry-red spot represents the preserved choroid blood flow against the ischemic retina. The attenuated retinal vessels are a result of decreased blood flow in the retinal circulation. This condition is considered an ophthalmic emergency and requires immediate evaluation and management to prevent permanent vision loss.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea. Otoscopic examination reveals a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Acute otitis media is the most likely condition responsible for this presentation. The sudden onset of severe, unilateral ear pain, diminished hearing, and purulent otorrhea are classic symptoms of acute otitis media. Otoscopic examination revealing a bulging, erythematous tympanic membrane with obscured landmarks further supports the diagnosis. The bulging of the tympanic membrane is due to the accumulation of fluid and pus behind it, causing the characteristic appearance. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to help clear the infection and relieve symptoms. If left untreated, acute otitis media can lead to complications such as perforation of the eardrum or mastoiditis.

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