Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

While positioning the patient for surgery, the nurse notices that the patient's skin is not adequately protected from pressure injuries. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should reposition the patient to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas. Pressure injuries can develop when there is prolonged pressure on specific areas of the skin, leading to reduced blood flow and tissue damage. Repositioning the patient helps to relieve the pressure and prevent the development of pressure injuries. Applying a pressure-relieving device may also be helpful, but the immediate action should be to reposition the patient to address the issue. Documenting the observation is important for documentation purposes, but the priority is to take action to prevent harm to the patient. Continuing with the positioning as planned without addressing the inadequate skin protection could lead to the development of pressure injuries, which should be avoided.

Question 2 of 5

A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show transient ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The given patient's symptoms of chest pain that occurs during heavy lifting or physical exertion and is relieved by rest are consistent with stable angina. Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain that occurs with exertion and is typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The transient ST-segment depression on ECG is also a common finding in patients with stable angina, which reflects myocardial ischemia during episodes of chest pain triggered by exertion. In contrast, unstable angina is characterized by chest pain at rest or with minimal exertion that is of increasing frequency, severity, or duration. Acute myocardial infarction is associated with persistent ST-segment elevation or new Q-waves on ECG, and Prinzmetal's angina is characterized by chest pain at rest due to coronary artery spasm rather than exertion.

Question 4 of 5

Simple hysterectomy involves the removal of which structure(s)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A simple hysterectomy involves the removal of the uterus and cervix. It does not involve the removal of the fallopian tubes or ovaries. In some cases, the fallopian tubes may be removed along with the uterus, but this would be specified as a different type of hysterectomy (such as a total hysterectomy or a radical hysterectomy). The removal of the ovaries, if necessary, would be indicated as an oophorectomy.

Question 5 of 5

A patient in the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with cardiogenic shock. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's shock?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) complicated by cardiogenic shock, the primary intervention to manage shock is emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). PCI is a procedure performed to restore blood flow in an occluded coronary artery that is causing the MI. By opening up the blocked artery and restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, PCI can help reduce myocardial damage, improve cardiac function, and stabilize the patient's condition. Prompt reperfusion via PCI is crucial in the setting of cardiogenic shock to improve survival outcomes and reduce the risk of further complications. Administering inotropic medications, initiating therapeutic hypothermia, or recommending anticoagulant therapy may be components of management in specific cases but are not the primary intervention for managing shock in a patient with acute MI and cardiogenic shock.

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