ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
During an assessment, a patient says that she was diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma 2 years ago. There are various types of glaucoma, such as open-angle glaucoma and closed-angle glaucoma. Which of the following are characteristics of open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It is the most common type of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is indeed the most common type, accounting for about 90% of all glaucoma cases. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open, but the trabecular meshwork becomes blocked over time. This leads to increased intraocular pressure, which can damage the optic nerve and result in vision loss. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: The symptoms mentioned (sensitivity to light, nausea, halos around lights) are more commonly associated with acute angle-closure glaucoma, not open-angle glaucoma. C: Immediate treatment is not necessarily needed for open-angle glaucoma as it progresses slowly, and treatment can vary based on the severity of the condition. D: Vision loss in open-angle glaucoma typically starts with the loss of peripheral vision, not central vision.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes this to indicate that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a normal pupillary light reflex involves the constriction of both pupils in response to bright light. This reflex is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, specifically the parasympathetic nervous system. When light is detected by the retina, signals are sent to the brain which then triggers the constriction of both pupils to reduce the amount of light entering the eye. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pupillary light reflex. Vision convergence, light reflection, and focusing the image at the center of the pupil are not directly related to the pupillary light reflex.
Question 3 of 5
When examining the face, the nurse is aware that the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, parotid and submandibular glands. The parotid and submandibular glands are the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible for examination in the face. The parotid gland is located near the ear, while the submandibular gland is located under the jaw. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Occipital and submental glands are not salivary glands accessible for examination in the face. B: Parotid gland is correct, but jugulodigastric gland is not a salivary gland. D: Submandibular gland is correct, but occipital gland is not a salivary gland.
Question 4 of 5
A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for a checkup, and she states,"I have little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 5-cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Fordyce's granules are small, yellow-white or flesh-colored spots that are sebaceous glands and commonly found on the oral mucosa. They are benign and do not require treatment. In this case, the patient's description matches the characteristics of Fordyce's granules. Option A is incorrect because strep throat typically presents with other symptoms like sore throat and fever, not white bumps in the mouth. Option B is incorrect as there is no indication of a serious lesion based on the description given. Option C is incorrect as leukoplakia is a condition associated with chronic irritation, not Fordyce's granules.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing the hearing of a 7-month-old. What would be the expected response to clapping of hands?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because at 7 months, infants typically have developed the ability to localize sounds. When clapping hands, the expected response is for the infant to turn their head towards the sound source, indicating their ability to detect and localize the sound. This behavior reflects the normal auditory development at this age. Choice B is incorrect because by 7 months, infants should show some response to noise, such as turning their head or showing some interest. Choice C is incorrect as the startle and acoustic blink reflex typically occur in response to sudden loud noises, but at 7 months, the infant should also be able to localize the source of the sound. Choice D is incorrect as stopping all movement and appearing to listen is not a typical response expected from a 7-month-old when hearing a sound. Infants at this age are more likely to actively turn towards the sound source to investigate.
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