ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A colleague is assessing an 80-year-old patient who has ear pain and asks him to hold his nose and swallow. Which of the following about this technique is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to hold his nose and swallow causes the eustachian tube to open, equalizing pressure in the middle ear. This action will cause the eardrum to bulge slightly outward, making landmarks more visible. Choice A is incorrect as age alone does not preclude the use of this technique. Choice B is incorrect because this technique is not primarily used for assessing otitis media. Choice C is incorrect as it is not specific to upper respiratory infections.
Question 2 of 5
A physician tells the nurse that a patient's vertebra prominens is tender and asks the nurse to reevaluate the area in 1 hour. The area of the body the nurse will assess will be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: at the level of the C7 vertebra. The vertebra prominens refers to the spinous process of the C7 vertebra, which is the most prominent bony landmark at the base of the neck. Assessing this area allows the nurse to accurately locate and evaluate tenderness reported by the physician. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the location of the vertebra prominens. Option A is too high, above the diaphragm; option B is too low, lateral to the knee cap; and option D is too low, at the level of the T11 vertebra.
Question 3 of 5
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 4 of 5
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 5 of 5
A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.
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