Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

During a surgical procedure, the nurse observes excessive bleeding from the surgical site. What intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Excessive bleeding during a surgical procedure is a critical situation that requires immediate attention. The surgeon should be notified promptly so that appropriate interventions can be initiated to control the bleeding, such as applying pressure, administering hemostatic agents, or performing additional surgical measures. The surgeon is ultimately responsible for addressing the source of bleeding and ensuring the patient's safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to communicate effectively and collaborate with the surgical team to manage the situation efficiently and effectively.

Question 2 of 5

A pregnant woman presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen is rigid, and fetal parts are palpable abdominally. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Uterine rupture is the most likely cause of these symptoms in a pregnant woman presenting with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, rigidity of the abdomen, and palpable fetal parts abdominally. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy, typically occurring during labor in women with a previous cesarean delivery or other uterine scars. The sudden onset of severe abdominal pain can be associated with vaginal bleeding due to the tearing of the uterine wall, causing fetal parts to be palpable abdominally. This is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention. Ectopic pregnancy, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion may present with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding but would not typically present with palpable fetal parts abdominally in a pregnant woman.

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash at the site of a tick bite. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most likely causative agent in this scenario is Borrelia burgdorferi, which is the bacterium responsible for causing Lyme disease. The classic presentation of Lyme disease includes fever, malaise, and a skin lesion resembling a "bull's eye" rash, known as erythema migrans. This rash typically appears at the site of a tick bite. If left untreated, Lyme disease can progress to involve multiple organ systems and lead to more severe complications. Plasmodium falciparum is the causative agent of malaria, which typically presents with symptoms such as fever, chills, and fatigue, but it does not cause a "bull's eye" rash. Trypanosoma cruzi is the parasite responsible for Chagas disease, which presents with symptoms such as fever, swelling at the site of entry (typically the bite wound), and enlarged lymph nodes, but it does not

Question 4 of 5

What drug should the nurse prepare for administration to reverse all signs of toxicity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Naloxone, also known by the brand name Narcan, is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, sedation, and other signs of toxicity. Administering naloxone can quickly reverse these effects, restoring the patient's breathing and consciousness. This makes it the appropriate choice for reversing all signs of toxicity related to opioids. Digibind (Digoxin) is used to reverse toxicity from digoxin specifically. Atropine sulfate is used for bradycardia. Diazepam (Valium) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle relaxation, not for reversing toxicity.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and glycosuria. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic signs of diabetes mellitus. In this case, the presence of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and glycosuria (glucose in the urine) further support the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Insulin deficiency or resistance in diabetes leads to impaired glucose utilization and excessive glucose in the bloodstream, causing the classic symptoms observed in the patient. Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and Cushing's syndrome do not typically present with the hallmark symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia associated with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.

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