ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Cord presentation is when the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cord presentation occurs when the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part after the membranes have ruptured. This can lead to compression of the cord during labor, affecting fetal oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as it describes cord prolapse, where the cord lies in front of the presenting part before membrane rupture. Option C describes nuchal cord, where the cord is wrapped around the fetal neck. Option D describes cord abruption, where the cord detaches prematurely from the placenta.
Question 2 of 5
Vaginal delivery is possible in
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Face presentation. Vaginal delivery is possible in face presentation as the baby's head is extended, allowing for descent through the birth canal. Brow presentation (A) and shoulder presentation (C) may require cesarean delivery due to the atypical presentation of the baby. Unstable lie (D) refers to the baby being in a transverse position, which also necessitates a cesarean section. Face presentation is the only option where vaginal delivery may be possible due to the extended position of the baby's head.
Question 3 of 5
A pregnant woman with acute pyelonephritis is advised on a high fluid intake so as to
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Correct dehydration. Acute pyelonephritis can lead to dehydration due to fever, vomiting, and decreased fluid intake. High fluid intake helps correct dehydration by maintaining adequate fluid balance and preventing further complications. Increasing urine output (choice D) is a consequence of correcting dehydration. Promoting enough rest (choice A) is important but not the primary reason for advising high fluid intake. Relief of irritability (choice C) is not directly related to the management of acute pyelonephritis.
Question 4 of 5
Complete uterine rupture: b) Define complete uterine rupture
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Complete uterine rupture involves a full-thickness disruption of all uterine layers, including the serosa, myometrium, and endometrium. This leads to a complete separation of the uterine wall, potentially resulting in severe bleeding and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect as it only involves the outermost layer of the uterus. Choice C is incorrect as uterine contractions are usually present during uterine rupture. Choice D is incorrect as the correct definition of complete uterine rupture involves the entire uterine layers being affected.
Question 5 of 5
Jennifer is an RN applicant for a staff nurse position in the surgical ICU. She has had a screening PPD and comes back in 48 hours to have it read. There is a 12-mm induration at the site of injection. A chest radiograph is negative. The AGACNP knows that the next step in Jennifers evaluation and management should include
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consideration of prophylactic therapy. A 12-mm induration in a healthcare worker is considered positive for PPD. In the absence of active TB on chest radiograph, the next step is to consider prophylactic therapy to prevent the development of active TB. This is based on the guidelines for the management of latent TB infection. Choice A is incorrect as a positive PPD warrants further evaluation regardless of the chest radiograph result. Choice B, the Quantiferon assay, is not the next step after a positive PPD and negative chest radiograph. Choice D, beginning therapy for pulmonary TB pending sputum cultures, is not indicated in this scenario as there is no evidence of active TB.
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