Midwifery Practice Questions

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because in cases of anteriorly situated placenta praevia, where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, a classical caesarean section is indicated to prevent severe bleeding during delivery. For choice B, a posteriorly situated placenta praevia does not necessitate a classical caesarean section. Choice C, gestation of more than 32 weeks, does not specifically indicate the need for a classical caesarean section. Choice D, aesthetic purpose on maternal request, is not a valid medical indication for a classical caesarean section.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspiration and culture of fluid. Given Jasmine's history of injection drug use, neck pain, inability to turn her neck, elevated temperature, and foul breath, there is a high suspicion of a deep neck space infection. Aspiration and culture of fluid from the affected area will help identify the causative organism and guide appropriate antibiotic therapy. This procedure is essential for definitive diagnosis and management of deep neck infections. A: Anteroposterior neck radiography is not the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for evaluating deep neck space infections as it may not provide detailed information on the extent or nature of the infection. B: CT scan of the neck may provide valuable information regarding the extent of the infection, but aspiration and culture of fluid are crucial for identifying the causative organism. C: White blood cell (WBC) differential may show signs of inflammation, but it does not provide specific information on the causative organism of the infection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. In preeclampsia, epigastric pain is typically associated with liver and/or HELLP syndrome, not hyperacidity. Hyperacidity is more commonly seen in conditions like gastritis or peptic ulcers. Therefore, severe epigastric pain in preeclampsia is not related to hyperacidity. Other choices are not applicable as they do not provide relevant information to the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: There is a slightly higher risk of neurologic complications. Rationale: 1. Off-pump bypass grafting involves performing surgery on a beating heart without the use of a heart-lung machine. 2. The lack of cardiopulmonary bypass during off-pump surgery can lead to reduced blood flow to the brain, increasing the risk of neurologic complications. 3. This is why the AGACNP advises Mr. Nelson about the slightly higher risk of neurologic complications associated with off-pump bypass. 4. Choice B is incorrect as long-term results actually suggest similar or better patency rates for grafts in off-pump surgery. 5. Choice C is incorrect as the statement about the incidence increasing significantly in the last 10 years is not relevant to the risks of off-pump surgery. 6. Choice D is incorrect as off-pump surgery is not considerably more expensive and the correlation with better long-term outcomes is debatable.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lipoma. A lipoma is a common benign tumor made of fat cells. In this case, the patient's presentation of a painless, soft, round, flesh-colored lump with smooth borders is consistent with a lipoma. The absence of symptoms like pain, erythema, or tenderness further supports this diagnosis. Lipomas are usually non-tender to palpation and can grow to a significant size. The other choices (A, C, D) are not the correct answers because they do not align with the characteristics described in the patient's presentation. Neurolemma is associated with nerve sheath tumors, hemangioma with blood vessel tumors, and lymphangioma with lymphatic vessel tumors, none of which match the clinical findings in this case.