test bank foundations of nursing

Questions 102

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

test bank foundations of nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter. TPN provides comprehensive nutrition intravenously, bypassing the GI tract, which is important for patients unable to tolerate oral intake. A peripherally inserted central catheter allows for long-term TPN administration. A: Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV is not ideal for long-term nutrition as it may not provide complete nutrition. C: Insertion of an NG tube may not be feasible due to the tumor location and the patient's inability to tolerate oral intake. D: Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration alone may lead to malnutrition over time as it does not provide adequate nutrition.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reviewing urinary laboratory results.Which finding will cause the nurse to follow up?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a protein level of 2 mg/100 mL in urine indicates proteinuria, which can be a sign of kidney dysfunction or other underlying health issues. The nurse should follow up to assess further for possible kidney disease or other conditions. Choice B is not a cause for concern as a urine output of 80 mL/hr is within the normal range. Choice C indicates concentrated urine, which may be due to dehydration but does not necessarily require immediate follow-up. Choice D is within the normal range for urine pH and does not typically warrant immediate follow-up.

Question 4 of 5

Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following nurses actions carries the greatest potential to prevent hearing loss due to ototoxicity?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because being aware of patients' medication regimens allows nurses to identify and monitor ototoxic medications that can cause hearing loss. By collaborating with other professionals, nurses can adjust medications or recommend alternative treatments to prevent or minimize ototoxicity. This proactive approach directly targets the root cause of potential hearing loss. A: Understanding types of hearing loss is important but does not directly prevent ototoxicity. B: Educating about age-related changes in hearing does not address ototoxicity prevention. C: Educating about noise exposure risks is important for overall hearing health but does not specifically prevent ototoxicity.

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