ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to verbalize concerns can help alleviate anxiety by allowing the patient to express emotions and fears. This intervention promotes emotional expression and provides an outlet for the patient to discuss their worries. This can lead to increased understanding and support. Incorrect answers: A: Administering antianxiety medications does not address the underlying cause of anxiety and may lead to dependency. B: Instructing the family on planning care does not directly address the patient's anxiety. D: Distracting the patient may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of anxiety related to lack of control over health circumstances.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is performing the admission assessment of a patient who has AIDS. What components should the nurse include in this comprehensive assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Current medication regimen. In the admission assessment of a patient with AIDS, it is crucial to assess the patient's current medication regimen to ensure proper management of the condition. This includes antiretroviral therapy, prophylactic medications, and any other medications the patient may be taking to manage comorbidities. Understanding the medications the patient is currently taking allows the nurse to assess for potential drug interactions, side effects, and adherence to the treatment plan. This information is essential for providing safe and effective care for the patient. Choice B: Identification of patients support system is important but not a specific component of the comprehensive assessment for a patient with AIDS. Choice C: Immune system function is a relevant aspect in a patient with AIDS, but it is not typically assessed in the admission assessment as it requires specialized testing. Choice D: Genetic risk factors for HIV are not typically assessed in the admission assessment of a patient with AIDS as the focus is on the current condition and management
Question 4 of 5
A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epistaxis (nose bleed). Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding. Epistaxis is a common symptom of thrombocytopenia due to the lack of platelets to aid in clot formation. Assessing for epistaxis in patients receiving carmustine is crucial to monitor and manage potential bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with thrombocytopenia.
Question 5 of 5
A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.
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