Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min. In cardiogenic shock, the primary goal of using an IABP is to improve cardiac output to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs. A cardiac output of 5 L/min indicates adequate blood flow and perfusion. Choice A is incorrect as urine output is not a direct indicator of cardiac function. Choice B is incorrect as a heart rate of 110 beats/minute alone does not provide information on the effectiveness of the IABP in improving cardiac output. Choice D is incorrect as stroke volume alone does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall cardiac function.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS. The PaO /FiO ratio is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO). In this case, PaO is 78 mm Hg and FiO is 0.6 (60%). Therefore, the calculation would be 78/0.6 = 130. This value is less than 300, which is indicative of ARDS according to the Berlin criteria. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the criteria for ARDS. Choice D is incorrect because the data provided is sufficient to compute the ratio.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the physician immediately of the assessment findings. The significantly higher PAOP could indicate a potential complication or a change in the patient's condition that needs immediate medical attention. By notifying the physician, further assessment and interventions can be initiated promptly to address the underlying cause. Increasing supplemental oxygen (choice A) may not directly address the elevated PAOP, obtaining a chest x-ray (choice C) may delay urgent intervention, and zero referencing the catheter (choice D) is not a priority in this situation. Notifying the physician ensures timely and appropriate management of the patient's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: True collaboration. In this scenario, the physician consults with the nurse to understand the situation and collaborates on the best course of action for the patient's care. This demonstrates effective teamwork, communication, and mutual respect between healthcare professionals, which are key components of a healthy work environment. Choice A (Skilled communication) is not the best answer because while communication between the physician and nurse is important, the focus in this scenario is more on collaboration and teamwork. Choice B (Appropriate staffing) is not the best answer as the scenario does not specifically address staffing levels but rather the interaction and collaboration between the physician and nurse. Choice D (Recognizing signs of imminent stroke and paging the physician) is incorrect as it is unrelated to the scenario described, which is about the physician and nurse collaborating on patient care.