Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. This finding is consistent with a basilar skull fracture because it indicates a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the skull base. The Halo sign refers to a ring of CSF surrounded by blood, which can be seen on a white absorbent pad. This specific sign is a classic indicator of a basilar skull fracture, as the CSF leakage from the ears or nose can be tinged with blood due to the fracture disrupting nearby blood vessels. For the other choices: A: Hematemesis and abdominal distention are not typical manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. They are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues or internal bleeding. B: Asymmetry of the face and eye movements can be seen with facial nerve or orbital injuries, but it is not specific to a basilar skull fracture. D: Abnormal position and movement of the arm are not directly related to a

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a patient with a history of fluid overload due to heart failure is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury. Heart failure can lead to decreased kidney perfusion causing acute kidney injury. In this scenario, the patient's fluid overload exacerbates the situation, further compromising kidney function. Choice A is incorrect as aminoglycosides can cause kidney injury but the duration of 6 days is less concerning compared to chronic fluid overload from heart failure in choice D. Choice B is incorrect because controlled hypertension does not directly increase the risk of acute kidney injury. Choice C is incorrect as the patient being discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy does not necessarily indicate a higher risk compared to chronic fluid overload.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deal with issues and not personalities. This guideline is important because it focuses on resolving the conflict based on the actual problem at hand, rather than personal biases or emotions. By addressing the issues causing the argument, the nurse can help the UAPs find a fair and logical solution. A: Requiring the UAPs to reach a compromise may not address the root cause of the conflict and could lead to further disagreements. B: Weighing the consequences is important but may not be as effective in resolving the conflict as directly addressing the issues. C: Encouraging humor may temporarily diffuse the situation but may not lead to a lasting resolution.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaccine. Smallpox is a contagious and potentially deadly disease caused by the variola virus. The smallpox vaccine is the most effective way to prevent and control the spread of smallpox. By obtaining adequate quantities of the smallpox vaccine, the ED nurse manager can protect healthcare workers and the public from contracting the virus in case of a smallpox bioterrorism event. Atropine (B) is used to treat certain types of nerve agent poisoning, not smallpox. Antibiotics (C) are ineffective against viruses like smallpox. Whole blood (D) is not specifically needed for smallpox treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the physician immediately of the assessment findings. The significantly higher PAOP could indicate a potential complication or a change in the patient's condition that needs immediate medical attention. By notifying the physician, further assessment and interventions can be initiated promptly to address the underlying cause. Increasing supplemental oxygen (choice A) may not directly address the elevated PAOP, obtaining a chest x-ray (choice C) may delay urgent intervention, and zero referencing the catheter (choice D) is not a priority in this situation. Notifying the physician ensures timely and appropriate management of the patient's condition.