Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank

Questions 68

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

An adult who has gastroenteritis and is on digitalis ha lab values of: K 3.2 mEq/L, Na 136 mEq/L, Ca 8.8 mg/dl, and Cl 98 mEq/L. the nurse puts which of the following on the client�s plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. The lab value of K at 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia. 2. Digitalis can worsen hypokalemia and lead to toxicity. 3. Avoiding foods rich in potassium will prevent further lowering of potassium levels. 4. This intervention helps prevent potential digitalis toxicity in the client. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: A. Stopping digitalis therapy abruptly can lead to rebound effects and worsen the condition. B. Trousseau's and Chvostek's signs are not relevant to the client's current lab values. D. While observing for digitalis toxicity is important, addressing the low potassium level is a more immediate concern in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

A new nurse is completing an assessment on an 80-year-old patient who is alert and oriented. The patient�s daughter is present in the room. Which action by the nurse will require follow-up by the charge nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should primarily communicate with the patient, not just the daughter. The nurse should engage the patient in conversation, address them directly, and ensure their needs and concerns are being addressed. Speaking only to the daughter could neglect the patient's autonomy and lead to potential communication barriers. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they all involve appropriate communication techniques with the patient, such as making eye contact, leaning forward to show attentiveness, and nodding to indicate understanding. These actions demonstrate good communication skills and rapport-building with the patient, which are important in nursing practice.

Question 3 of 5

A client with end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has profound manifestations of Cryptosporidium infection caused by the protozoa. In planning the client�s care, the nurse should focus on his need for:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fluid replacement. In end-stage AIDS with Cryptosporidium infection, the client experiences severe diarrhea leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Fluid replacement is crucial to prevent hypovolemia and maintain electrolyte balance. Adequate hydration supports renal function, prevents further complications, and aids in the elimination of the infectious agent. Pain management (A) may be needed for discomfort but is not the priority. Antiretroviral therapy (B) is essential for managing HIV but does not directly address the immediate issue of dehydration. High-calorie intake (D) is important for overall nutrition but does not address the urgent need for fluid replacement in this situation.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse should include which of the following in preprocedure teaching for a patient scheduled for carotid angiography?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "You may feel a burning sensation when the dye is injected." This is important preprocedure teaching for carotid angiography because it prepares the patient for a common sensation during the procedure, helping to manage their expectations and reduce anxiety. This information is crucial for informed consent. Choice A is incorrect because carotid angiography is usually done under local anesthesia, not general anesthesia. Choice B is incorrect as carotid angiography typically takes about 1-2 hours, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect because all medical procedures, including carotid angiography, carry potential risks and complications, which should be discussed with the patient.

Question 5 of 5

Before, during and after seizure. The nurse knows that the patient is ALWAYS placed in what position?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Side lying position. This position helps prevent aspiration of secretions and promotes drainage from the mouth during and after a seizure. Placing the patient in a side lying position also helps prevent injury from falling and facilitates monitoring of the patient's airway. Incorrect choices: A: Low fowler's - This position does not provide optimal airway protection and may increase the risk of aspiration during a seizure. B: Modified trendelenburg - This position may worsen the patient's airway patency and does not facilitate drainage of secretions. D: Supine - Placing the patient in a supine position can lead to aspiration and compromise the airway, especially during a seizure. Summary: The side lying position is the most appropriate choice as it ensures airway protection, facilitates drainage, and reduces the risk of aspiration during and after a seizure.

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