ATI RN
physical assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
An 80-year-old woman has no weight loss, no pain, and no distention but over 2 years increasingly complains of constipation despite adequate medical treatment. A colonoscopy is negative. An abdominal CT is performed. It reveals well-circumscribed pelvic masses, the largest adherent to the ovarian ligament. The best first step is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Referral to a gynecological oncologist is appropriate given the concerns of pelvic masses and possible malignancy.
Question 2 of 5
Which condition is caused by an insufficient production of intrinsic factor by gastric mucosa and vitamin B insufficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency.
Question 3 of 5
A pediatric patient has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia. This clinical finding is consistent with:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp causing patches of hair loss.
Question 4 of 5
What finding is typical in a patient with a meniscal tear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A positive McMurray's test is indicative of a meniscal tear.
Question 5 of 5
A 75-year-old client with a history of stroke is being assessed for rehabilitation. Which factor is most important for successful rehabilitation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Motivation and engagement in rehabilitation are key to achieving the best outcomes for older adults recovering from a stroke.
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