ATI RN
Nutrition ATI Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
After bronchoscopy, the nurse's priority is to check which of the following before feeding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After a bronchoscopy procedure, the nurse's priority is to check the patient's gag reflex before allowing them to eat to prevent aspiration. The gag reflex helps protect the airway by triggering a cough or gag response if something touches the back of the throat. This is crucial to ensure that the patient can protect their airway and prevent food or fluids from entering the lungs, especially when the throat may be sensitive or compromised post-bronchoscopy. Checking for the wearing off of anesthesia, swallowing reflex, or peristalsis are important assessments but not the immediate priority before feeding in this context.
Question 2 of 5
By force of law, therefore, the PRC-Board of Nursing released Resolution No. 14 Series of 1999 entitled: "Adoption of a Nursing Specialty Certification Program and Creation of Nursing Specialty Certification Council." This rule-making power is called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regulatory Power. Regulatory power involves the authority to create rules and regulations that govern a specific area. In this case, the PRC-Board of Nursing's release of Resolution No. 14 Series of 1999 for the Nursing Specialty Certification Program falls under regulatory power as it establishes guidelines and standards for nursing specialty certification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Quasi-judicial power involves making decisions on rights and obligations, quasi-legislative power involves creating regulations with the force of law, and executive/promulgating power involves enforcing and implementing laws and regulations.
Question 3 of 5
In preparation for ECT, the nurse knows that it is almost similar to that of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: General Anesthesia. In preparation for ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy), the nurse should be aware that it is almost similar to the process of administering general anesthesia. This similarity is crucial as it involves sedation and muscle relaxation to ensure safety during the procedure. Choice A (ECG) is incorrect because ECT and ECG (Electrocardiogram) serve different purposes and involve distinct procedures. Choice C (EEG) is incorrect as EEG (Electroencephalogram) measures brain activity and is not directly related to ECT. Choice D (MRI) is also incorrect as MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is a diagnostic imaging procedure that does not involve sedation or muscle relaxation like ECT and general anesthesia.
Question 4 of 5
During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.
Question 5 of 5
All of the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measles typically presents with symptoms like reddened eyes, coryza (inflammation of the mucous membrane in the nose), and cough. However, pustules are not a common symptom of measles. Pustules are more characteristic of conditions like chickenpox rather than measles. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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