A young woman comes to you with a cut on her finger caused by the lid of a can she was opening. She is pacing about the room, crying loudly, and through her sobs she says, "My career as a pianist is finished!" Which personality type exhibits these features?- Skildor

Question 1 of 5

A young woman comes to you with a cut on her finger caused by the lid of a can she was opening. She is pacing about the room, crying loudly, and through her sobs she says, "My career as a pianist is finished!" Which personality type exhibits these features?

A. Narcissistic B. Paranoid C. Histrionic D. Avoidant

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The young woman in this scenario is exhibiting characteristics of histrionic personality disorder. Individuals with histrionic personality disorder tend to be overly dramatic, attention-seeking, and have a tendency to be excessively emotional in their reactions. The young woman's exaggerated response to a minor cut on her finger, along with her dramatic declaration that her career as a pianist is over, reflects the emotional and attention-seeking behaviors commonly associated with histrionic personality traits.

Question 2 of 5

His head, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also normal. On visualization of the anus there is no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, asymmetric, hard nodule on the otherwise normal posterior surface of the prostate. Examination of the scrotum and penis are normal. Laboratory results are pending. What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is mostly likely in this case?

A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) B. Prostatitis C. Prostate cancer D. Anorectal cancer

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presence of an irregular, asymmetric, hard nodule on the posterior surface of the prostate detected during digital rectal examination raises suspicion for prostate cancer. Prostate cancer commonly presents with nodules or indurations on the prostate gland during physical examination. Other findings, such as no inflammation, masses, or fissures in the anus and normal examinations of the scrotum and penis, further support the likelihood of prostate cancer as the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additional laboratory results, including prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels, can help confirm the diagnosis. Both benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and prostatitis typically present with different symptoms than those described in the scenario, making prostate cancer the most likely disorder based on the provided information. Anorectal cancer is less likely given the absence of findings indicating involvement of the anus or rectum in this case.

Question 3 of 5

You are growing fatigued of performing a maneuver on examination because you have never found a positive and are usually pressed for time. How should you next approach this maneuver?

A. Use this test when you have a higher suspicion for a certain correlating condition. B. Omit this test from future examinations. C. Continue doing the test, but rely more heavily on laboratory work and diagnostics. D. Continue performing it on all future examinations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important to adjust your approach based on the clinical context and your suspicion for a certain condition. If you have never found a positive result with a particular maneuver and you are usually pressed for time during examinations, it may be more beneficial to reserve that maneuver for situations where you have a higher suspicion for a correlating condition. This allows you to use your time and resources more effectively, targeting specific tests based on the clinical scenario to increase the chances of identifying any relevant issues. By using the test selectively, you can improve the diagnostic yield without compromising the overall assessment.

Question 4 of 5

He is afebrile. His abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. He has no Murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. His rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. Blood work is pending. What etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?

A. Peptic ulcer disease B. Biliary colic C. Acute cholecystitis D. Acute pancreatitis

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tenderness in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area, along with normal bowel sounds, is suggestive of acute pancreatitis. This condition typically presents with severe, steady epigastric pain that may radiate to the back or left upper quadrant. Patients may also have tenderness on physical examination in these areas. Acute pancreatitis is commonly associated with risk factors such as gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption.

Question 5 of 5

A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago, and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy, and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?

A. Bartholin's gland infection B. Vulvar carcinoma C. Secondary syphilis D. Condylomata acuminata

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical presentation described is consistent with a Bartholin's gland infection, also known as Bartholin's abscess. The Bartholin's glands are located on each side of the vaginal opening and can become blocked, leading to glandular secretions accumulating and forming an abscess. Symptoms of Bartholin's gland infection include pain, swelling, and tenderness in the vulvar area. The pain can be severe and exacerbated by sitting, similar to what the patient is experiencing. On examination, a red, tense swelling to the side of the introitus is a characteristic finding.

Similar Questions

A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago, and she is sexually active. She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past medical history is significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy, and her father has type 2 diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up. She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus. Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva is most likely causing her problems?

A young woman comes to you with a cut on her finger caused by the lid of a can she was opening. She is pacing about the room, crying loudly, and through her sobs she says, "My career as a pianist is finished!" Which personality type exhibits these features?

A 29-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for evaluation of a headache. The tightening sensation is located all over the head and is of moderate intensity. It used to last minutes, but this time it has lasted for 5 days. He denies photophobia and nausea. He spends several hours each day at a computer monitor/keyboard. He has tried over-the-counter medication; it has dulled the pain but not taken it away. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision may be caused by which of the following conditions?

A 32-year-old white male comes to your clinic, complaining of aching on the right side of his testicle. He has felt this aching for several months. He states that as the day progresses the aching increases, but when he wakes up in the morning he is pain-free. He denies any pain with urination and states that the pain doesn't change with sexual activity. He denies any fatigue, weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is a married hospital administrator with two children. He notes that he and his wife have been trying to have another baby this year but have so far been unsuccessful despite frequent intercourse. He denies using tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. His father has high blood pressure but his mother is healthy. On examination you see a young man appearing his stated age with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised with no lesions. He has no scars along his inguinal area, and palpation of the area shows no lymphadenopathy. On palpation of his scrotum you feel testes with no discrete masses. Upon placing your finger through the right inguinal ring you feel what seems like a bunch of spaghetti. Asking him to bear down, you feel no bulges. The left inguinal ring is unremarkable, with no bulges on bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What abnormality of the scrotum does he most likely have?

Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions

Skildor

ATI RN