ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
A public health nurse is developing guidelines for the management of a botulism outbreak. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Rinsing the skin with soap and water following exposure to the botulism toxin is crucial as it helps remove the toxin from the skin, preventing further absorption. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is not used in the management of botulism. Airborne precautions are not necessary for botulism as it is not transmitted through the air. Aminoglycoside medications are not the treatment of choice for botulism.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse allow the client to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Grape juice is the correct choice for a clear liquid diet because it is a liquid that is transparent and does not contain any solid particles. Lemon sherbet, milkshake, and vanilla ice cream are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet as they all contain solid particles or are not in liquid form.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, poor impulse control. Right hemisphere strokes commonly affect judgment and safety awareness, leading to poor impulse control. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect for this scenario. Deficits in the right visual field are associated with left hemisphere strokes, while the inability to discriminate words and letters is typically seen with left hemisphere damage. Motor retardation is more common in strokes affecting the motor areas of the brain, not specifically related to right hemisphere strokes.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.
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