RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN

Questions 65

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RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is preparing to measure a client's level of oxygen saturation and observes edema of both hands and thickened toenails. The nurse should apply the pulse oximeter probe to which of the following locations?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client has edema of both hands and thickened toenails, these conditions can impede accurate readings from the finger and toe locations. The earlobe is the best alternative site for the pulse oximeter probe in this scenario. Placing the probe on the earlobe will help ensure a more accurate measurement of oxygen saturation despite the issues with the hands and toenails. Therefore, the correct answer is to apply the pulse oximeter probe to the earlobe. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because of the potential limitations presented by the edema and thickened toenails.

Question 3 of 5

A client is prescribed 1g of potassium phosphate IV to be infused continuously over 6 hr. Available is 1 g in 250 ml of dextrose 5%. What rate should the nurse set the IV pump to run at?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the IV rate, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. In this case, 1 g in 250 ml is to be infused over 6 hours. Therefore, 250 ml / 6 hr = 42 ml/hr. This means the IV pump should be set to run at 42 ml/hr. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the infusion rate based on the provided information.

Question 4 of 5

A client is vomiting, and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Preventing aspiration is the priority when caring for a client who is vomiting to reduce the risk of pneumonia or other respiratory complications. Aspiration can occur when vomitus enters the airway, leading to respiratory distress. Ensuring the airway is protected during vomiting episodes is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) can be considered after addressing the immediate risk of aspiration. Notifying housekeeping (Choice B) and providing an emesis basin (Choice D) are important but are secondary to preventing aspiration, which is crucial for the client's safety and well-being.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide to a client taking ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection is to avoid caffeine. Ciprofloxacin can interact with caffeine, potentially leading to increased side effects or reduced effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course, even if the client starts feeling better. Choice B is incorrect as ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products or antacids as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication.

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