ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B with NGN Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct definition of malpractice in the context of professional negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner by a professional. This choice is correct because malpractice occurs when a professional does not meet the standard of care expected in their field, leading to harm or injury to the client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because malpractice is specifically about the failure to meet professional standards of care, rather than personal standards, miscommunication within a healthcare team, or inadequate documentation of patient care.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse manager is asked to select clients for early discharge from the unit following a mass casualty event. Which of the following clients should the nurse manager recommend?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager should recommend the client awaiting a screening colonoscopy later that day for early discharge following a mass casualty event. This client is stable and not in immediate need of hospital care. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who require ongoing monitoring and care due to recent developments or treatments, making them unsuitable for early discharge during a mass casualty event.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is preparing to admit a client to the PACU who received a competitive neuromuscular blocking agent. Which of the following items should the healthcare professional place at the client's bedside?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A bag-valve-mask device is necessary in case of respiratory complications that may arise due to the effects of the neuromuscular blocking agent. The competitive nature of the agent can lead to muscle weakness, including respiratory muscles, necessitating immediate respiratory support. Placing a defibrillator machine, chest tube equipment, or central venous catheter tray at the client's bedside would not be the priority in this situation. While these items may be important in specific scenarios, ensuring the availability of a bag-valve-mask device is crucial to address potential airway and breathing issues promptly.
Question 4 of 5
How is the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure evaluated?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to evaluate the effectiveness of a diuretic in a patient with heart failure is by checking daily weights and lung sounds for improvement. Daily weights help to assess fluid retention changes, while improvement in lung sounds indicates reduced pulmonary congestion. Assessing blood pressure and urine output (Choice B) is important but does not directly evaluate the effectiveness of the diuretic. Monitoring for weight loss and reduction in edema (Choice C) are valid indicators of diuretic effectiveness, but direct observation of daily weights and lung sounds is more specific. Measuring heart rate and lung sounds (Choice D) is relevant but does not directly assess the impact of the diuretic on fluid balance and pulmonary status.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.
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