A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a- Skildor

Question 1 of 5

A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a

A. diuretic. B. tocolytic. C. anticonvulsant. D. antihypertensive.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is planning discharge education for a patient who underwent a cervical diskectomy. What strategies would the nurse assess that would aid in planning discharge teaching?

A. Care of the cervical collar B. Technique for performing neck ROM exercises C. Home assessment of ABGs D. Techniques for restoring nerve function

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Care of the cervical collar Rationale: 1. Care of the cervical collar is essential post-cervical diskectomy to ensure proper immobilization and support. 2. Proper care prevents complications and promotes healing. 3. It is a crucial aspect of discharge education to prevent injury and promote recovery. Summary of other choices: B: Technique for performing neck ROM exercises - Important for rehabilitation but not directly related to discharge education post-cervical diskectomy. C: Home assessment of ABGs - Irrelevant to post-cervical diskectomy discharge education. D: Techniques for restoring nerve function - Important for recovery but not a primary focus of discharge education.

Question 3 of 5

Initiate feeding.

A. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 B. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 C. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 D. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention?

A. The patient will receive antianxiety medications every 4 hours. B. The patients family will be instructed on planning the patients care. C. The patient will be encouraged to verbalize concerns related to the disease and its treatment. D. The patient will begin intensive therapy with the goal of distraction.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to verbalize concerns can help alleviate anxiety by allowing the patient to express emotions and fears. This intervention promotes emotional expression and provides an outlet for the patient to discuss their worries. This can lead to increased understanding and support. Incorrect answers: A: Administering antianxiety medications does not address the underlying cause of anxiety and may lead to dependency. B: Instructing the family on planning care does not directly address the patient's anxiety. D: Distracting the patient may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of anxiety related to lack of control over health circumstances.

Question 5 of 5

As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer�Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that

A. immediate birth is required. B. the patient should be transferred to the critical care unit for closer observation. C. RhoGAM should be administered. D. a tetanus shot should be administered.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: immediate birth is required. The Kleihauer�Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage in situations where there is a risk of fetal blood entering the maternal circulation, such as trauma during pregnancy. A positive result indicates a significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to Rh incompatibility and severe fetal anemia. Immediate birth is required to prevent complications and ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choice B is incorrect as transferring the patient to the critical care unit does not address the underlying issue of fetal-maternal hemorrhage. Choice C is incorrect as RhoGAM is typically administered to prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers carrying Rh-positive babies, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as a tetanus shot is not directly related to the positive Kleihauer�Betke test result indicating fetal-maternal hemorrhage.

Similar Questions

As the triage nurse in the emergency room, you are reviewing results for the high-risk obstetric patient who is in labor because of traumatic injury experienced as a result of a motor vehicle accident (MVA). You note that the Kleihauer�Betke test is positive. Based on this information, you anticipate that

A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response?

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Skildor

ATI RN