test bank foundations of nursing

Questions 102

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

test bank foundations of nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse is providing discharge education to an adult patient who will begin a regimen of ocular medications for the treatment of glaucoma. How can the nurse best determine if the patient is able to self-administer these medications safely and effectively?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. By asking the patient to demonstrate the instillation of medications, the nurse can directly assess the patient's ability to self-administer the medications safely and effectively. This method allows for a practical demonstration of skills, which is more reliable than relying solely on verbal descriptions or past experiences. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because assessing for previous inability, describing the method, or evaluating functional status may not directly demonstrate the patient's competency in self-administering ocular medications.

Question 2 of 5

A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient�s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse�s priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.

Question 4 of 5

An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is preparing a patient for a magneticresonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which nursing action ismostimportant?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Removing all of the patient�s metallic jewelry. Rationale: 1. Safety: Metallic objects can be attracted by the MRI magnet, causing harm to the patient and disrupting the imaging process. 2. Artifact Prevention: Metallic objects can produce artifacts on the MRI images, affecting the diagnostic quality. 3. Patient Comfort: Removing jewelry ensures the patient's comfort during the scan, avoiding discomfort or injury. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Not eating or drinking before an MRI is important, but it is not the most crucial action compared to patient safety and image quality. B: Colon cleansing may be necessary for certain types of MRI scans, but it is not universally required and is not the most important action. C: Pain medication may be important for patient comfort, but it is not essential for the actual MRI procedure and does not impact safety or image quality.

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