foundations in microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Helicobacter pylori. Helicobacter pylori is a known bacterium associated with causing duodenal ulcers. The presence of Gram-negative curved bacteria in the biopsy along with a highly positive rapid urease test is characteristic of H. pylori infection. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not duodenal ulcers. Campylobacter fetus is associated with gastroenteritis, not duodenal ulcers. Acinetobacter baumannii is a nosocomial pathogen, not typically associated with duodenal ulcers. In summary, the unique combination of findings in this case points towards H. pylori as the most likely cause of the disease.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which are important for protection and pathogenicity. This outer membrane is a unique feature of Gram-negative bacteria and is not present in Gram-positive bacteria, making it a key characteristic. A: Incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer compared to Gram-positive bacteria. C: Incorrect because teichoic acids are a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria, not Gram-negative bacteria. D: Incorrect because all bacteria, including Gram-negative bacteria, have a cell wall.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Togaviridae is a family of viruses known to have non-segmented (+)ssRNA as their genetic material. Step 2: The positive sense RNA means that the viral RNA can be directly translated into proteins by host machinery. Step 3: This RNA genome acts as mRNA, allowing for immediate translation of viral proteins. Step 4: Therefore, choice C is correct as it accurately describes the genetic nature of Togaviridae. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have helical symmetry. - Choice B is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses do not have non-segmented (-)dsRNA. - Choice D is incorrect because Togaviridae viruses are enveloped viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Syphilis. The presentation of painless inguinal lymph nodes, along with a small-sized ulcer with thickened edges and a "laquer" bottom of greyish color on the genital mucous membrane, is classic for primary syphilis. The painless nature of the lymph nodes and the specific characteristics of the ulcer are key features of syphilitic infection. Primary syphilis is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum and typically presents with a single, painless ulcer known as a chancre. It is important to consider syphilis in the differential diagnosis of genital ulcers. Summary of other choices: B: Tuberculosis - Unlikely, as tuberculosis typically presents with pulmonary symptoms and does not cause genital ulcers. C: Lepra - Unlikely, as leprosy does not typically present with painless inguinal lymph nodes and the specific ulcer characteristics described. D: Trophic ulcer - Unlikely