foundations in microbiology test bank

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Helicobacter pylori. Helicobacter pylori is a known bacterium associated with causing duodenal ulcers. The presence of Gram-negative curved bacteria in the biopsy along with a highly positive rapid urease test is characteristic of H. pylori infection. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not duodenal ulcers. Campylobacter fetus is associated with gastroenteritis, not duodenal ulcers. Acinetobacter baumannii is a nosocomial pathogen, not typically associated with duodenal ulcers. In summary, the unique combination of findings in this case points towards H. pylori as the most likely cause of the disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sporozoites. Sporozoites are the infective stage of Plasmodium for the female Anopheles mosquito. Here's the rationale: After being transmitted to a human host through a mosquito bite, the sporozoites travel to the liver where they mature and reproduce asexually as merozoites (not the infective stage for mosquitoes). The merozoites then infect red blood cells, leading to symptoms like fever, headache, and shivering. During the blood stage, some merozoites develop into male and female gametocytes, which are not infective to mosquitoes. When a mosquito bites an infected person, it ingests gametocytes, which then develop into male and female gametes and fuse to form ookinetes. Ookinetes develop into oocysts in the mosquito's gut, releasing sporozoites that migrate to the salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host when the mosquito bites

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Isoniazid. Isoniazid is known to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect, especially with prolonged use. It can lead to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the toes and fingers due to its neurotoxic effects. Rifampicin (B) is less likely to cause neuropathy. Ciprofloxacin (C) is not typically associated with neuropathy. Sodium salt of benzylpenicillin (D) is an antibiotic but is not known to cause polyneuritis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All are correct. Patients planned for treatment with monoclonal antibodies should be tested for HBV, HCV, and M. tuberculosis due to the risk of reactivation of these infections during treatment. HBV and HCV reactivation can lead to severe liver damage, while M. tuberculosis reactivation can cause serious respiratory complications. Testing for all three infections helps in identifying and managing any pre-existing infections to ensure patient safety during monoclonal antibody treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these infections presents specific risks that need to be assessed before initiating monoclonal antibody therapy.