Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cryptosporidium parvum. This parasite is the most likely cause of the infection due to its presentation with watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after consuming contaminated water. Laboratory tests revealing oocysts in the stool sample further support this diagnosis as Cryptosporidium parvum is known to produce oocysts in the stool. Giardia lamblia (choice A) presents with similar symptoms but does not typically produce oocysts. Entamoeba histolytica (choice B) is more associated with bloody diarrhea and liver abscesses. Cyclospora cayetanensis (choice D) is also associated with watery diarrhea but is less common in this scenario. Thus, based on the symptoms and laboratory findings, Cryptosporidium parvum is the most likely culprit.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rotator cuff tear. The presentation of acute shoulder pain and limited range of motion after a fall onto an outstretched hand, along with tenderness over the greater tuberosity and pain with passive abduction and external rotation, is classic for a rotator cuff tear. The mechanism of injury and physical exam findings are consistent with this condition. B: Glenohumeral dislocation typically presents with a visibly deformed shoulder and loss of normal shoulder contour. C: Acromioclavicular joint separation would present with tenderness over the AC joint rather than the greater tuberosity, and typically involves a history of direct trauma to the shoulder. D: Proximal humerus fracture would present with more diffuse shoulder pain and swelling, and not specific tenderness over the greater tuberosity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because confirming the insertion site and direction using imaging guidance ensures precise placement of the chest tube, minimizing the risk of complications. Imaging guidance allows the nurse to visualize the exact location of the pneumothorax and guide the tube insertion accurately. A: Positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position with arms elevated may be beneficial for comfort but does not directly ensure proper chest tube placement. B: Marking the insertion site with a pen may help as a reference point but does not guarantee accurate placement. C: Administering analgesia is important for the patient's comfort but does not impact the placement of the chest tube. In summary, choice D is the most critical step to ensure the chest tube is correctly placed and effectively treats the pneumothorax.