Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers

Questions 164

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee. Physical examination reveals a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line. McMurray's test elicits pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation. Which condition is most likely?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of knee pain and swelling following a fall onto a flexed knee, along with a palpable effusion and tenderness along the joint line, is highly suggestive of a meniscus injury. The McMurray's test specifically evaluates for meniscal tears. In this case, the presence of pain and clicking with passive knee flexion and internal rotation indicates a medial meniscus tear as the most likely diagnosis. Patellar tendinitis usually presents with anterior knee pain that is worsened by activities such as jumping or running. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) sprain typically presents with lateral knee pain and instability. Quadriceps tendon rupture would present with significant weakness and inability to fully extend the knee, which is not described in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with asthma experiences nocturnal cough, wheezing, and chest tightness several times per week. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for long-term control of asthma symptoms and prevention of exacerbations?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair) is a combination medication consisting of an inhaled corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a long-acting beta-agonist (salmeterol). This combination medication is recommended for long-term control of asthma symptoms and for the prevention of exacerbations. Fluticasone reduces airway inflammation, while salmeterol helps to relax the muscles of the airways, improving breathing. Using this combination medication regularly can help manage asthma symptoms and reduce the risk of asthma attacks. It is not appropriate to use short-acting beta-agonists like albuterol (salbutamol) on a long-term basis for asthma control. Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that is more commonly used for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD

Question 3 of 5

A patient presents with a palpable thyroid nodule and signs of hyperthyroidism. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals follicular cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Follicular thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Patients with follicular thyroid carcinoma may present with a palpable thyroid nodule, which in this case is causing signs of hyperthyroidism due to the overproduction of thyroid hormones by the malignant cells. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy revealing follicular cells with nuclear features suggestive of malignancy further supports the diagnosis of follicular thyroid carcinoma in this scenario.

Question 4 of 5

A woman in active labor presents with a prolonged latent phase, characterized by irregular and ineffective contractions. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to this abnormal labor pattern?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Maternal anxiety can contribute to a prolonged latent phase during labor. Stress and anxiety can trigger the release of stress hormones such as adrenaline, which can interfere with the production of oxytocin, the hormone responsible for initiating contractions. This can result in irregular and ineffective contractions, leading to a prolonged latent phase. It is important for the nurse to assess the woman's anxiety levels and provide reassurance and support to help facilitate the progression of labor.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is presenting with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina. Additionally, ST-segment depression on ECG is a common finding in patients with stable angina. Stable angina is typically caused by coronary artery disease, which leads to partial obstruction of the coronary arteries resulting in inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle during periods of increased demand (such as exertion). The chest pain is usually predictable and reproducible, occurring with similar intensity and duration during episodes of exertion. Rest or nitroglycerin can help relieve the symptoms by increasing coronary blood flow. It is important to differentiate stable angina from unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction, which have different management and prognostic implications.

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