Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions

Questions 28

ATI RN

Home > ATI RN > Physical Assessment > Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions
ATI RN Test Bank

Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with ear pain. She is an avid swimmer. The history includes pain and drainage from the left ear. On examination, she has pain when the ear is manipulated, including manipulation of the tragus. The canal is narrowed and erythematous, with some white debris in the canal. The rest of the examination is normal. What diagnosis would you assign this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's history of swimming and presenting symptoms of ear pain, drainage, and manipulation tenderness are suggestive of external otitis, commonly known as swimmer's ear. External otitis is an infection of the outer ear canal, which can be caused by prolonged moisture exposure, trauma, or bacterial/fungal infections. The narrowed and erythematous canal with white debris is characteristic of this condition. Otitis media (Choice A) typically presents with deep ear pain, hearing loss, and sometimes fever, but does not involve the ear canal. Perforation of the tympanum (Choice C) would present with sudden relief of pain and possible drainage from the ear. Cholesteatoma (Choice D) is characterized by a painless cyst or mass in the middle ear, not presenting with these acute ear canal symptoms.

Question 2 of 5

He is afebrile. His abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds, but he is very tender in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area. He has no Murphy's sign or tenderness in the right lower quadrant. The remainder of his abdominal examination is normal. His rectal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernias or tenderness with that examination. Blood work is pending. What etiology of abdominal pain is most likely causing his symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tenderness in the left upper quadrant and epigastric area, along with normal bowel sounds, is suggestive of acute pancreatitis. This condition typically presents with severe, steady epigastric pain that may radiate to the back or left upper quadrant. Patients may also have tenderness on physical examination in these areas. Acute pancreatitis is commonly associated with risk factors such as gallstones or excessive alcohol consumption.

Question 3 of 5

You are growing fatigued of performing a maneuver on examination because you have never found a positive and are usually pressed for time. How should you next approach this maneuver?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: It is important to adjust your approach based on the clinical context and your suspicion for a certain condition. If you have never found a positive result with a particular maneuver and you are usually pressed for time during examinations, it may be more beneficial to reserve that maneuver for situations where you have a higher suspicion for a correlating condition. This allows you to use your time and resources more effectively, targeting specific tests based on the clinical scenario to increase the chances of identifying any relevant issues. By using the test selectively, you can improve the diagnostic yield without compromising the overall assessment.

Question 4 of 5

On auscultation her lung fields have normal breath sounds with no rhonchi, wheezes, or crackles. Percussion and palpation are unremarkable. Auscultation of the heart has an S and S 1 2 with no S or S . A scratching noise is heard at the lower left sternal border, coincident with 3 4 systole; leaning forward relieves some of her pain. She is nontender with palpation of the chest wall. What disorder of the chest best describes this disorder?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described involves a patient with pericarditis. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac surrounding the heart, which can lead to characteristic findings such as a scratching noise heard on auscultation, leaning forward relieving pain, and normal lung examination findings. The presence of pericarditis can also lead to a pericardial friction rub, which is often described as a scratching or grating sound heard best at the lower left sternal border.

Question 5 of 5

A man's wife is upset because when she hugs him with her hands on his left shoulder blade, "it feels creepy." This came on gradually after a recent severe left-sided rotator cuff tear. How long does it usually take to develop muscular atrophy with increased prominence of the scapular spine following a rotator cuff tear?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Following a severe rotator cuff tear, it typically takes around 2-3 months for muscular atrophy to develop with increased prominence of the scapular spine. This is due to disuse of the affected shoulder muscles leading to muscle wasting and changes in the bony structures around the shoulder blade. Over time, the lack of muscle activity causes the shoulder blade to become more prominent and noticeable, which can result in altered sensations during activities like hugging. The gradual onset of these changes aligns with the timeline provided in the question, where the wife started to feel discomfort in her husband's left shoulder blade after the recent severe rotator cuff tear.

Similar Questions

A man's wife is upset because when she hugs him with her hands on his left shoulder blade, "it feels creepy." This came on gradually after a recent severe left-sided rotator cuff tear. How long does it usually take to develop muscular atrophy with increased prominence of the scapular spine following a rotator cuff tear?
What is the most appropriate amount for a weekly weight reduction goal?
You are seeing an older patient who has not had medical care for many years. Her vital signs taken by your office staff are: T 2, HR 78, BP 118/92, and RR 14, and she denies pain. You notice that she has some hypertensive changes in her retinas and you find mild proteinuria on a urine test in your office. You expected the BP to be higher. She is not on any medications. What do you think is causing this BP reading, which doesn't correlate with the other findings?
A 30-year-old man notices a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola. He has no other symptoms and no diagnosis of breast cancer in his first-degree relatives. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 32-year-old white male comes to your clinic, complaining of aching on the right side of his testicle. He has felt this aching for several months. He states that as the day progresses the aching increases, but when he wakes up in the morning he is pain-free. He denies any pain with urination and states that the pain doesn't change with sexual activity. He denies any fatigue, weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is a married hospital administrator with two children. He notes that he and his wife have been trying to have another baby this year but have so far been unsuccessful despite frequent intercourse. He denies using tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. His father has high blood pressure but his mother is healthy. On examination you see a young man appearing his stated age with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised with no lesions. He has no scars along his inguinal area, and palpation of the area shows no lymphadenopathy. On palpation of his scrotum you feel testes with no discrete masses. Upon placing your finger through the right inguinal ring you feel what seems like a bunch of spaghetti. Asking him to bear down, you feel no bulges. The left inguinal ring is unremarkable, with no bulges on bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. What abnormality of the scrotum does he most likely have?

Join Our Community Today!

Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for ATI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your ATI-RN exam.

Call to Action Image