Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank

Questions 165

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents with a pruritic rash with linear streaks and small, fluid-filled blisters. The patient reports recent exposure to poison ivy while gardening. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The presentation of a pruritic rash with linear streaks and small, fluid-filled blisters following exposure to poison ivy is characteristic of allergic contact dermatitis. Poison ivy contains an oil called urushiol, which is known to cause this type of skin reaction in individuals who are sensitive to it. The linear streaks are often a result of the plant brushing against the skin. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition characterized by the formation of intraepidermal blisters, typically not associated with linear streaks or exposure to irritants like poison ivy. Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by subepidermal blisters, and herpes zoster presents with a painful rash following reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in a dermatomal pattern, not typically in linear streaks.

Question 2 of 5

There are pre operative medications given to the patient. Which of the following drugs are given in order to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and pain?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Demerol (meperidine hydrochloride) is an opioid analgesic commonly used as a preoperative medication to decrease intra-operative anesthetic requirements and provide analgesia. Opioids like Demerol act on the central nervous system to reduce pain sensations, making it an effective choice for preoperative pain management. This can help decrease the amount of anesthesia needed during surgery, leading to better pain control and overall patient comfort during and after the procedure. Celebrex, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen are also used for pain management, but they do not have the same potency and mechanism of action as opioids like Demerol for reducing intra-operative anesthetic requirements.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with suspected tuberculosis (TB) presents with cough, weight loss, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of pulmonary TB?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with suspected pulmonary TB, the most appropriate diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis is the sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture. This test involves examining sputum samples under the microscope for the presence of acid-fast bacilli, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB. Additionally, culturing the sputum allows for the bacteria to grow in a controlled environment, further confirming the diagnosis. In the given scenario, the patient's symptoms (cough, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis), along with chest X-ray findings of upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation, are highly suggestive of pulmonary TB. Therefore, performing a sputum AFB smear and culture is crucial for definitive diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment. The other options (Tuberculin skin test, Interferon

Question 4 of 5

Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with ____.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, are promptly managed with epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps counteract the severe symptoms by relaxing the muscles in the airways, constricting blood vessels, and decreasing swelling. It acts quickly to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of the allergic reaction and is crucial in managing anaphylaxis effectively. Other medications like antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) and corticosteroids may be used as adjuncts, but epinephrine remains the primary treatment for immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.

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