foundation of nursing questions

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient presents at the ED after receiving a chemical burn to the eye. What would be the nurses initial intervention for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a chemical burn to the eye is to generously flush the affected eye with normal saline or water. Flushing helps to remove the chemical from the eye, preventing further damage. Antibiotic solution (choice A) is not the first intervention as the priority is to remove the chemical. Applying a patch (choice C) can trap the chemical against the eye, worsening the injury. Applying direct pressure (choice D) is not appropriate and can cause additional harm. Flushing with normal saline or water is the most effective and safest initial intervention to minimize damage from a chemical burn to the eye.

Question 2 of 5

In the past three to four decades, nursing has moved into the forefront in providing care for the dying. Which phenomenon has most contributed to this increased focus of care of the dying?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Demographic changes in the population. This is because as the population ages, there is a higher prevalence of chronic illnesses and an increased number of people facing end-of-life care needs. This has led to a greater demand for palliative and hospice care services, shifting the focus of nursing towards providing care for the dying. A: Increased incidence of infections and acute illnesses is not the primary factor contributing to the increased focus on care for the dying. While these conditions do require nursing care, they do not directly explain the shift in focus. B: Increased focus of health care providers on disease prevention is important but does not directly explain the increased attention on care for the dying. Disease prevention aims to reduce the incidence of illnesses, not necessarily address end-of-life care needs. C: Larger numbers of people dying in hospital settings may be a consequence of the increased focus on care for the dying, but it is not the underlying phenomenon driving the shift in nursing care towards end-of

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T- lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS. Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated. Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.

Question 4 of 5

The clinic nurse is performing a prenatal assessment on a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia. Which clinical sign would not present as a symptom of preeclampsia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucosuria. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. Glucosuria is not a typical symptom of preeclampsia. Glucosuria is more commonly associated with gestational diabetes, which is a separate condition from preeclampsia. Therefore, in a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia, the presence of glucosuria would not be indicative of preeclampsia. The other choices, edema, proteinuria, and hypertension, are all common clinical signs seen in patients with preeclampsia.

Question 5 of 5

The public health nurse is addressing eye health and vision protection during an educational event. What statement by a participant best demonstrates an understanding of threats to vision?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because reviewing current medications with a pharmacist is crucial in understanding potential threats to vision. Some medications can have side effects that impact eye health. This proactive approach shows an understanding of how medication can affect vision. Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding direct sunlight is important for eye health, it does not address other potential threats. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise, while beneficial for overall health, does not directly relate to understanding threats to vision. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring blood pressure is important for cardiovascular health but does not specifically address threats to vision.

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